In a hurray.
Here is good explanation and other info about this
http://home.inreach.com/bstanley/immacon.htm
The Immaculate Conception:
The Blessed Virgin Mary is the “New Ark of the Covenant”.
GOD was very meticulous as to how the Hebrews were to construct the wooden ‘Ark of the Covenant’ in Exodus 25. The Ark was destined to be the most sacred object on earth by GOD because it contained GOD’S “Word”, written on the stone tablets handed down by Him to Moses. It was so sacred that Uzzah, who had good intentions, died instantly just by just touching it as it was about to tip over in 2Sam 6:2-8. Since the wooden Ark of the Old Testament was but a “type” of the “New Ark” of the New Testament, and therefore inferior to it, then how much more for merely a man not to touch the “New Ark of the Covenant”? What is reserved for GOD only, is GOD’s only.
GOD and sin are mutually exclusive (Rev 21:27). Does not it stand to reason that when GOD created the “New Ark of the Covenant”, the vessel that contained “His Word” (Jesus Christ, John 1:1) that He would be equally or more meticulous in creating it? Can GOD co-exist with original sin in the same vessel, the womb of Mary? That ‘vessel’, Mary, had to be worthy of the ‘Treasure’ she carried, Jesus The Christ, the Word Incarnate.
What is the purpose of Baptism? It is to remove the stain of original sin. When we are baptized, sin goes out and GOD comes in. Baptism to remove sin and allow GOD to come in was not instituted until after Jesus had started His ministry (John 3:22-23, 4:2).
So The Blessed Virgin had to have a stainless sin-free body and soul in order for GOD incarnate to dwell within her. GOD imputes the stain of original sin into the soul of each person He creates. However, He did not do so for His only Son. What makes you think He could not do so for His Son’s mother as well?
Who was the first person to call Mary “Blessed”?
It was GOD Himself through the Angel Gabriel in Luke 1:28. If GOD said “Hail, full of Grace, the Lord is with thee”, in the same verse, could Mary have been ‘full of grace’ or ‘blessed’ or have the ‘Lord with her’, had she been stained by original sin? If you say ‘yes’ to that one, then please explain your answer to me?
By being “full of Grace”, and being told “the Lord is with thee”, is she not higher than Eve who was never told these things? If so, was Eve created with original sin? No? Then why do you think Mary, who is higher than Eve, was born with original sin? Wouldn’t having original sin make Mary lower than Eve? Eve is a “type” of Mary, who is the “antitype”. “Types” are always inferior to “antitypes” and always point to a much greater reality, and never to a symbol.
GOD will not join Himself with anything defiled, Wis 1:4-5, Isa 59:1-4,
Rom 1:18-32, Rev 21:27.
For these reasons, Mary had to be immaculately conceived: Gen 3:15,
Ex 25:8-40, Psa *4:4,18:23,51:10, Psa 132:8, *Song 4:7, *Wis 1:4, Isa 59:2,
*Ez 44:1-3, Lk 1:28,42, *John 1:1 and 1:14 together, Eph 5:27, Tit 3:7.
Some non-Catholics have a problem with the Immaculate Conception of Mary. It is a major ‘stumbling block’ for them. They miss several very important points.
They try to bring GOD down to our human level in order to explain His ways. If they cannot explain it in a human way, then they say, “It simply could not have happened.” This is as bad as to try to raise our human ways up to GOD’s divine level. It simply cannot be done. They fail to realize that GOD’s ways are not our ways, nor are GOD’s thoughts our thoughts’. Isa 55:8-11
The first Protestant had this to say of the Blessed Virgin Mary:
“It is a sweet and pious belief that the infusion of Mary’s soul was effected without original sin; so that in the very infusion of her soul she was also purified from original sin and adorned with God’s gifts, receiving a pure soul infused by God; thus from the first moment she began to live she was free from all sin.”
Martin Luther, (Sermon: “On the Day of the Conception of the Mother of God,” 1527).
Isn’t it strange that most of Protestantism does not believe in the Immaculate Conception today?
Who was the first Protestant to discard this doctrine in which the founder of Protestantism believed? Jesus Christ was born without original sin since He is GOD.
John the Baptist was born without original sin also. Luke 1:15
Why then could anyone say that the Mother of GOD could not have been immaculately conceived?
"Full of grace" is a mistranslation in the Vulgate and in the vast majority of translation from the original language, Greek, reads favored one.
"What does the Greek say here for "highly favored one? It is the single Greek word kexaritomena and means highly favored, make accepted, make graceful, etc. It does not mean "full of grace" which is "plaras karitos" (plaras = full and karitos = Grace) in the Greek."
http://www.carm.org/mary-full-grace-and-luke-128
Unfortunately, the RCC can never admit this and continue to point a couple of verses in Luke for fig leaf "proof".
"And my spirit has rejoiced in God my Savior," (Luke 1:47).
We have it on Scriptural authority that Christ died for the "ungodly" (Rom. 5:6). What will it be for Mary? If she was never ungodly then in what meaningful way did Christ die for her? If she needed a savior, then in what meaningful way was she without sin?
http://www.cwrc-rz.org/thlarchive/thla-004.php
Hurray!
To say this is to totally ignore God’s covenant with Israel.
(both the House of Israel and the House of Judah)
Mary was Jewish and under the old testament covenant.
She was born just like everyone else but she was righteous in the God of Abraham ,Issac and Jacobs eyes because she did follow that covenant .
As was John the Baptist and his parents also.
Sin is sin and all sin is unrighteous .
Jesus came to pay for that sin , the ultimate sacrifice.
Baptism is not to remove original sin as Jesus own sacrifice takes care of that for those who believe in him.
Baptisim is an outward expression of a person accepting Jesus sacrifice as paying for your sins in full and making you righteous in God’s eye.