As to point two, when Jesus makes this reference he is speaking to a crowd that did not use the Greek canon. This argument begs the question by assuming that the assumptions of the audience He is addressing are correct, which is the point at issue.
The OT was revelation to the jews.. not the greeks All the canonical books therefore are written by Jewish prophets in Hebrew.
The Jews never accepted any of them as canonical ...also the most important point is all the canonical books are Christocentric.. the apocrypha are not..