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To: Zionist Conspirator
Oh, so that's how all Western Europe became Catholic and Eastern Europe became Orthodox--the bishops and theologians just sat in their cathedrals and millions of people showed up and asked questions.

No, ZC, I am surprised you would say something like that.

In fact, the number of Christians at the end of the century was relatively small (less than ten thousand, according to estimates). There were many competing "mystery religions" that cliamed Jesus of their own, and at one point one such cult, Manicheanism, was much more prominent then all Christian sects combined. Christianity was established in Europe by much more effective means than proselytizing.

Europe became Christian 1,698 years ago by the Edict of Milan, an imperial decree by the Roman Emperor Constantine. In other words, by fiat.

And he did that out of supersititon! After having dreamt of a victory with a sign of a cross, he decided that the Christian God was the "stronger god", and ordered everyone to become Christian. So, Europe (which was Rome) became Christian by an imperial edict. Of course the Church didn't complain...ebven though Constantine refused to be baptized until near his death, and in fact, is venerated as a saint in the Orthodox Church.

And Russia became Christian by the will of her prince. He sent emissaries to find out more about this Christian religion and they visited Rome and Constantinople and liked the eastern liturgy ("it's like heaven on earth" they reported back to him) and that sealed Russia as an Orthodox country.

It's been a while since I've read the "new testament," so maybe you can refresh my memory. Where did it tell how Paul just sat and waited for all of Anatolia and Greece to come to him?

But Anatolia and Greece didn't come to him. Yes, he did preach there, because that was his mission. He was saving the Church! Literally speaking.

Of course, the "official truth" is that he preached because God told him to do so (where did I see that reason before?).

And someone made sure to put that into the Gospels at the very end (catching up with times), in order to make it look look "official."

But Jesus never taught that. To the contrary! He told the disciples to go only to the "lost sheep of Israel" (which we know is not Gentiles and not even Samaritans). And they were supposed to go there to heal and to announce the messianic message that the kingdom of God (re-established Israel) and not to preach a new religion.

It is only at the very end of the Gospels of Mark (Ch. 16), apparently a latter-day addition after verse 9, and Matthew (Ch. 28), a "trinitized" version that was apparently introduced after the First Ecumenical Council in 25 AD, that they are sent to the "ethne" (which literally means "tribes").

Now what other tribes would Jesus send his disciples to if he specifically forbade them to go to any other than Jewish tribes, and if he himself admits to having been sent ONLY for the lost sheep of Israel?!?

Yes, he does send them to go to the "end of the world" but that's because the Jews were scattered all over the known world, and one of the things the Jewish messiah will accomplish is convince all the Jews in diaspora to return to Israel!

Clearly, the Church later changed this (and many other things) to mean nations of the world, since the Church was no longer a Jewish gathering and her mission was to the Gentiles.

But it is clear that Christianity, in most instances, was introduced by the will of the rulers, as a state religion, and not by proselytizing.

The current withdrawn non-activist attitude of Orthodox Judaism doesn't come from the religion but from two millennia of living in a situation where all that mattered was survival and where any proselytization would have been met with mass slaughter.

Was there an active attempt to convert large groups of people to Judaism? No of course not. It is contrary to Judaism to proselytize. Noahaide laws, yes, because that goes hand in hand with the OT Covenant God made with Noah and "all living creatures" after the Flood "for all generations."

Christianity, on the other hand, is out there to "save" the rest of the world, so they tend to proselytize. But the Church, especially the more traditional Eastern Church, never proselytized very actively.

In the colonies, there was a pressure gradient to convert the population and in some instances for strictly moral reasons (nudity, incest, etc.) encountered among indigenous populations.

So, while it is understandable that the ostracized Jews preferred to take a low profile in the Christian world, I can't recall an instance in history when Judaism actively proselytized.

34 posted on 06/18/2010 7:12:20 PM PDT by kosta50 (The world is the way it is even if YOU don't understand it)
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To: kosta50
Oh, so that's how all Western Europe became Catholic and Eastern Europe became Orthodox--the bishops and theologians just sat in their cathedrals and millions of people showed up and asked questions.

No, ZC, I am surprised you would say something like that.

In fact, the number of Christians at the end of the century was relatively small (less than ten thousand, according to estimates). There were many competing "mystery religions" that cliamed Jesus of their own, and at one point one such cult, Manicheanism, was much more prominent then all Christian sects combined. Christianity was established in Europe by much more effective means than proselytizing.

Europe became Christian 1,698 years ago by the Edict of Milan, an imperial decree by the Roman Emperor Constantine. In other words, by fiat.

And he did that out of supersititon! After having dreamt of a victory with a sign of a cross, he decided that the Christian God was the "stronger god", and ordered everyone to become Christian. So, Europe (which was Rome) became Christian by an imperial edict. Of course the Church didn't complain...ebven though Constantine refused to be baptized until near his death, and in fact, is venerated as a saint in the Orthodox Church.

And Russia became Christian by the will of her prince. He sent emissaries to find out more about this Christian religion and they visited Rome and Constantinople and liked the eastern liturgy ("it's like heaven on earth" they reported back to him) and that sealed Russia as an Orthodox country.

It's been a while since I've read the "new testament," so maybe you can refresh my memory. Where did it tell how Paul just sat and waited for all of Anatolia and Greece to come to him?

But Anatolia and Greece didn't come to him. Yes, he did preach there, because that was his mission. He was saving the Church! Literally speaking.

Of course, the "official truth" is that he preached because God told him to do so (where did I see that reason before?).

And someone made sure to put that into the Gospels at the very end (catching up with times), in order to make it look look "official."

But Jesus never taught that. To the contrary! He told the disciples to go only to the "lost sheep of Israel" (which we know is not Gentiles and not even Samaritans). And they were supposed to go there to heal and to announce the messianic message that the kingdom of God (re-established Israel) and not to preach a new religion.

It is only at the very end of the Gospels of Mark (Ch. 16), apparently a latter-day addition after verse 9, and Matthew (Ch. 28), a "trinitized" version that was apparently introduced after the First Ecumenical Council in 25 AD, that they are sent to the "ethne" (which literally means "tribes").

Now what other tribes would Jesus send his disciples to if he specifically forbade them to go to any other than Jewish tribes, and if he himself admits to having been sent ONLY for the lost sheep of Israel?!?

Yes, he does send them to go to the "end of the world" but that's because the Jews were scattered all over the known world, and one of the things the Jewish messiah will accomplish is convince all the Jews in diaspora to return to Israel!

Clearly, the Church later changed this (and many other things) to mean nations of the world, since the Church was no longer a Jewish gathering and her mission was to the Gentiles.

But it is clear that Christianity, in most instances, was introduced by the will of the rulers, as a state religion, and not by proselytizing.

::Sigh:: I have refrained from responding to this very honest, very detailed post of yours for some time; first, because FR wasn't connecting, secondly, because it even now isn't up to speed, and thirdly, because it is not pleasant and I dread it.

The entire chr*stian religion, from beginning to end, appears to me one of the most cruel jokes that has ever been invented. And I can see that of all the peoples of the earth the biggest victims are the Fundamentalist "rednecks" of the Bible Belt, who literally have taken it to heart. No wonder they are the only chr*stians who proselytize. No wonder the older, more historical versions don't. It seems to go along with the fact that the older versions don't take any of it seriously.

I hope the world is enjoying this laugh at my people's expense. I must confess, though, that for me this stopped being funny a long time ago. In fact, it was never funny to begin with.

The happy ending to all this would be the "Bible-thumpers" at last getting wise to the whole thing and turning from this fraudulent religion to the Noachide Laws. But there isn't going to be any happy ending, at least not until Mashiach comes. They have committed their lives to this joke to the extent that they will never listen to me or anyone else. You can even come out and tell them the whole thing's an imposition and they won't believe you (since they have the KJV). Never in my life have I seen such dedication, wasted as it is.

Yuck it up, people. I hope you're all proud of yourselves. Posting my opinion of the people who have perpetuated this fraud for two thousand years would get me banned.

The current withdrawn non-activist attitude of Orthodox Judaism doesn't come from the religion but from two millennia of living in a situation where all that mattered was survival and where any proselytization would have been met with mass slaughter.

Was there an active attempt to convert large groups of people to Judaism? No of course not. It is contrary to Judaism to proselytize. Noahaide laws, yes, because that goes hand in hand with the OT Covenant God made with Noah and "all living creatures" after the Flood "for all generations."

And if it hadn't been for the joke the apostles and their successors played on the world the entire Roman Empire might have converted to the Noachide Laws. Good job ruining that for everyone.

Christianity, on the other hand, is out there to "save" the rest of the world, so they tend to proselytize. But the Church, especially the more traditional Eastern Church, never proselytized very actively.

Neither did the western church of the Holy Irish Nation, whom G-d liberated from Oliver Cromwell.

In the colonies, there was a pressure gradient to convert the population and in some instances for strictly moral reasons (nudity, incest, etc.) encountered among indigenous populations.

So, while it is understandable that the ostracized Jews preferred to take a low profile in the Christian world, I can't recall an instance in history when Judaism actively proselytized.

Judaism never actively proselytized for Judaism. It proselytized for the Noachide Laws until faced with such penalties that it ceased.

36 posted on 06/21/2010 5:55:26 PM PDT by Zionist Conspirator (Mah-tovu 'ohaleykha, Ya`aqov; mishkenoteykha, Yisra'el!)
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