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To: Just mythoughts

Just mythoughts wrote:
“And Jeremiah recounts this flood that took place in Genesis 1:2, in Jeremiah 4:22-26, where the Heavenly Father says His people are foolish and ‘sottish’ which means stupid because thy have none understanding: they are wise to do evil, but to do good they have no knowledge...”

No, I don’t think he did. He was describing the situation in early 6th century B.C. Israel (Judah plus the northern kingdom’s territories that had recently come under Jerusalem’s rule in the reign of Josiah) as being like that of the disorder and emptiness of the world at its creation.

Let me guess: LDS?


58 posted on 04/13/2010 9:51:22 PM PDT by Belteshazzar
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To: Belteshazzar; Just mythoughts

He says he isn’t but the doctrine is off, and is very similar to LDS, so...


59 posted on 04/13/2010 10:10:30 PM PDT by reaganaut (Ex-mormon, now Christan - "I once was lost but now am found, was blind but now I see")
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To: Belteshazzar
No, I don’t think he did. He was describing the situation in early 6th century B.C. Israel (Judah plus the northern kingdom’s territories that had recently come under Jerusalem’s rule in the reign of Josiah) as being like that of the disorder and emptiness of the world at its creation. Let me guess: LDS?

I am not LDS. I can make no comment on their doctrine. What I do know is what Isaiah penned, chapter 45 verse 18 with regard to Genesis 1:2 where the Heavenly Father stated without question He did NOT created this earth in vain, using the very specific Hebrew words as found in Genesis 1:2.

And Jeremiah starts off chapter 4 with the reference to the northern kingdom of Israel (peoples, 10 tribes,) "If thou wilt return, O Israel, saith the LORD, return unto Me: and if thou wilt put away thine abominations out of My sight then thsalt thou not remove.

Then in verse 3 Jeremiah addresses Judah and Jerusalem. Jeremiah gives warnings and call to repentance. Then is verse 22 Jeremiah sums up the state of mind of the people and in verse 23 Jeremiah uses those specific Hebrew words first used in Genesis 1:2 "I beheld the earth, and, lo, it was (there is that non-existent verb even in italics in my KJV) *without form* and void; and the heavens, and they had no light.

Genesis 1:2 says there was a flood, and that is exactly what Jeremiah is describing. And obviously Peter understood what Jeremiah said about what Moses penned because Peter says IIPeter 3:5 For this they willingly are ignorant of,

that by the word of God the heavens were of *old*, and the earth standing out of the water and in the water:

6 Whereby the world that then *was*, being overflowed with water, perished:

Moses says there was a flood in Genesis 1:2 long before this earth was cleaned up to be inhabited as described starting in Genesis 1:3.

Isaiah 14:12- and Ezekiel 28:12 both give instruction as to why Genesis 1:2 took place, and Solomon in the book of Ecclesiastes 1:9 The thing that hath been, it is that which shall be; and that which is done is that which shall be done: and there is no new thing under the sun.

10 Is there any thing whereof it may be said, 'See this is new?' it hath been already of old time, which was before us.

11 There is no remembrance of former things; neither shall there be any remembrance of things that are to come with those that shall come after.

Why it is relevant and necessary to know and understand what was Written is told by Paul in ICorinthians 10:11 Now all these things happened unto them for ensamples: (examples), and they are written for our admonition, (warning) upon whom the ends of the world (age) are come.

We have the 'script' that has already happened that is in the process of being played out again.

61 posted on 04/14/2010 1:10:34 AM PDT by Just mythoughts
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