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To: wagglebee
As far as your theory about Matthew 10:50, the Lord's command after His Resurrection to go to ALL nations, renders it moot.

Exactly...That's what I and the scriptures are telling you...

Before the resurrection, salvation was to Jews only...Jesus told the apostles to avoid all Gentiles...After the resurrection, Jesus says to preach salvation to all nations and people...

You know it, you admit it but yet you can' figure it out...Things changed after the resurrection...And NO, the 2nd command does not make the first one moot...

Under the first command, the Gospel was directed at Jews...The Jews for the most part rejected the Messiah...Jesus then blinded the minds of those Jews and sent the apostles into all the world to preach to the Gentiles and offer than what was only intended for the Jews...

There is a time coming again, when the times of the Gentiles gets fufilled; when God will lift the blinders from the minds of the Jews and he will deal with THEM again...

599 posted on 04/21/2010 10:07:40 AM PDT by Iscool (I don't understand all that I know...)
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To: Iscool

Your point? Of course things changed after the Resurrection, but your earlier post seeks to dismiss the Gospels.


601 posted on 04/21/2010 10:15:33 AM PDT by wagglebee ("A political party cannot be all things to all people." -- Ronald Reagan, 3/1/75)
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