Yep. By this account, it really is pretty ridiculous. That I grant you, dear brother.
But what is the foundation of your account?
Why do you think Mary needed God to "keep herself a virgin?" That was the customary expectation of unmarried Jewish women of her time — especially of those of direct descent from the House of David.
Your allusion to storks just tells me you are "not ready for prime time" WRT this question. No offense intended.
BTW, Mary was VERY MUCH pregnant, not never-pregnant. (If she had been "never pregnant," then Christ would not have been incarnated.) Her virginity remained intact, that is, it preceded the Incarnation by the Holy Spirit. THAT is the only thing that counts.
I'm talking about why would God keep her a virgin AFTER she gave birth. That was most certainly not expected of Jewish woman of that time - in fact, it was scandalous and considered a curse to not produce children.
And if you read my post more carefully, I didn't say she was never pregnant, or never should have been.
I believe she was conceived of the Holy spirit as a virgin and was pregnant with Jesus..
That she gave birth vaginally (pretty much the only option back then)
That when her time of healing was over and she was ritually purified in accordance with Hebrew law, she began normal sexual relations with her husband and conceived and delivered more children over the years.