Hebrew cannon.
Greek cannon.
The canon was accepted late in the 4th century and not in the 1500s. Its acceptance was essentially restated at that time for obvious reasons - Luther and other reformers were commiting heresy.
I could come at this discussion from a number of angles and paste off the internet, but I won’t do that. I will just leave you with a few questions. Which Old Testament did Jesus read? Did he read or use the Hebrew cannon or did he use the Greek cannon (which had the “apocrypha” as you call it)? Another question you can ask yourself is what languages were Jesus and the apostles fluent in? What was the language they spoke and used? When you answer these questions you will see in your own heart what books were cannon and what were not cannon.
It’s my understanding that Jesus quoted from the Septuagint. I also understand he only cited non-Apocryphal books. I did read the list of apocryphal phrases or references he was supposed to have made, but I think those phrases are too general and/or are also traceable to non-Apocryphal sources.
The Council of Trent’s official declaration is easily accessed. I can’t help that I use the internet. I of course am not a theologian and am not sitting in a library full of works by the many theological fathers that I can read at my leisure all day. I am not a seminarian and simply don’t have the decades of study that it would take to come up with reams of original thought on the subject on my own.
As best I understand Jesus used Greek and Aramaic, which is a Hebrew dialect. I don’t know why that would argue for or against the Apocrypha. Jesus of course could have used any language He wished, since He could raise the dead; He was not limited by language.
A question that crosses my mind - didn’t mean to post two times -
what, if any, essential Roman Catholics doctrine(s) that you know of would change if the Apocrypha were not considered to be the Word of God?
Hebrew cannon.
Greek cannon.