We know that he had been married, but we know that only because his mother-in-law is mentioned. His wife is never mentioned. We have to infer her existence from the mention o his mother-in-law. It’s a proper inference.
But since he’s never portrayed as “actively” married and his wife is not mentioned, no children are ever mentioned: who knows whether she was even living at the time he left his nets to follow Jesus or, if she was living(possible) whether they had marital relations after that. Telling the world whether you and your wife are doing the deed regularly or not is not something most of us are going to do. It’s not exactly the sort of thing you’d expect to make its way into Scripture.
Nothing in Scripture precludes the possibility that Peter and his wife practiced continence after he was chosen to be the head of the Twelve, if she was even still living at that point.
When did this fixation upon the sex or intimacy begin? One certainly cannot find Scriptural basis for such fixation.
Jewish men at the time of Christ were required to celebrate every Sabbath with sexual intercourse. It is Jewish law.
http://www.jewishsexuality.com/the-holiness-of-marital-relations
Peter was a Jew. If his wife was still living, he would have been having regular weekly sexual intercourse with her.
Why do we always forget that Jesus and his disciples were strict Jews who obeyed Levitical laws?