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To: Above My Pay Grade
The Scripture clearly states Jesus was speaking to His disciple (John), not His “disciples”, and that His “disciple” took her to “his own home”. He was making provision for His mother, not calling her the mother of all believers.

But doesn't that run contrary to your claim that Jesus has brothers and sisters? If He perfectly fulfilled the law, He would have left His Mother to them.

13 posted on 02/24/2010 12:01:12 PM PST by Pyro7480 ("If you know how not to pray, take Joseph as your master, and you will not go astray." - St. Teresa)
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To: Pyro7480

The Scriptures clearly refer to Jesus’ brothers and sisters in many places. He likely put her in John’s care because John was a believer and His brothers and sisters were not, at that point in time.

Also, if His brothers and sisters did not take on the obligation to care for their mother, it would be them violating the law, not Him. Arragning for a substiture “son” to care for her, would beatifully fulfill the spirit of the Law.

Of course, the Scriptures do not state why He commended Mary to John, so we don’t really know. What the Scriptures do state, and therefore we know beyond any doubt is that Jesus had brothers and sisters.


25 posted on 02/24/2010 12:26:30 PM PST by Above My Pay Grade
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To: Pyro7480
But doesn't that run contrary to your claim that Jesus has brothers and sisters? If He perfectly fulfilled the law, He would have left His Mother to them.

I'm just starting out on this thread so I assume you have been set straight by many bible believers already...But just in case, if you guys would put as much time into reading the scripture as you do reading your 'church fathers', you wouldn't be asking these questions...

Jesus' family at the time were not believers...John was far more of a brother to Jesus than his family...Jesus wanted to leave His mother in the care of a Christian...

177 posted on 05/14/2010 5:04:40 AM PDT by Iscool (I don't understand all that I know...)
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