[HarleyD]

Yes, all have sinned. Does this include Christ?

No, the text is clear that Paul set our Lord Jesus apart from the rest of mankind:

Rom 3:22-23 the righteousness of God through faith in Jesus Christ for all who believe. For there is no distinction: for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,

"For all who believe" and "all have sinned" are connected. The righteousness of God does not include Mary.

As for Mary, what of the phrase, “blessed art thou amongst women?”

Psa 2:11-12 Serve the LORD with fear, and rejoice with trembling. Kiss the Son, lest he be angry, and you perish in the way, for his wrath is quickly kindled. Blessed are all who take refuge in him.

It isn't bearing the Lord Jesus that made Mary blessed. Certainly it was a great honor. However, it is the fact that they who take refuse in the Lord is blessed. Not to minimize her role, but Mary isn't even listed in the Hebrews roll call of faith.

Yes, Mary rejoiced in her saviour because it was Christ himself who chose her and redeemed her from sin even at her conception, preserving her from sin for all time.

This is a fairy tale. There is no scriptural evidence for any of this. If God could redeemed Mary from her sin and preserve her from sin from all time, why on earth couldn't He do that for everyone? God shows no partiality.

[BenKenobi]

The problem with your interpretation is several fold.

One, he does not specifically refer to Mary here. Nowhere does Paul say that he is speaking on the issue of Mary.

Two, he is referring to is the congregation of the Jews and Gentiles. In saying that neither Jew nor Gentile, he is giving the general case that all have fallen.

Three, it’s possible that by this time, around 55 or so AD that Mary was no longer there. Therefore the statement that all have fallen short of the law, can be taken to refer to the present.

“It isn’t bearing the Lord Jesus that made Mary blessed.”

True, it is the fact that Christ chose her to be his mother that made her blessed. That’s exactly what it says in Luke.

Here’s what Luke has to say:

“For he hath regarded the low estate of his handmaiden: for, behold, from henceforth all generations shall call me blessed.”

It was Christ in choosing her that made her blessed. ‘Regarded the low estate of his handmaiden’.

“This is a fairy tale.”

Is the resurrection a fairy tale?

“There is no scriptural evidence for any of this.”

Neither is there for the Trinity. I find no mention of the Trinity in scripture.

“If God could redeemed Mary from her sin and preserve her from sin from all time, why on earth couldn’t He do that for everyone? God shows no partiality.”

Ahh, and now we get to the crux of the matter.

Matthew 5:45

“He causes his sun to rise on the evil and the good, and sends rain on the righteous and the unrighteous.”

This is your beef with God and with Mary. How can God bless one person over another? He is partial. He favours the lowly, the weak, the accursed, the sinners over the high and the mighty and the rich.

Who are you to say that God cannot choose his mother? That he could not have blessed Mary and Mary alone? That is his prerogative, not your own.