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"No, mine doesn't:" "ειτα λεγει τω μαθητη ιδου η μητηρ σου και απ εκεινης της ωρας ελαβεν ο μαθητης αυτην εις τα ιδια" τα ιδια Is used earlier in 1:11 :"He came to his own" that is; His own people or group or family. It is used again in 16:32 where Jesus prophecies the desertion of the disciples at his betrayal. The sense being that the disciples will scatter, 'each to his own' in a desire for protection and shelter from any consequence of being associated with Jesus. The difference here is exegesis as opposed to eisegesis. When John brought Mary 'to his own' he was bringing her under the care and protection of his household in order to provide for her financial needs since women in those days without a breadwinner would become destitute. Our Lord as the firstborn son and directly responsible for His mothers financial security was making sure that her needs were met.

Yes, but “his own” here means “fellow disciples”, that is, the Church, of which Mary now becomes the mother. It is not an economic arrangement (a house, “oikos” would connot that), it is spiritual adoption.