This is refuted in the original posting.
You mean, “But Mt. 27:56, says at the cross were Mary the mother of James and Joseph. Mark 15:40 says Mary the mother of James the younger and Joses was there. So, although the proof is not conclusive, it seems that – unless we suppose these were others with the same names, that the first two, James and Joseph (Joses) had a mother other than the Mother of Jesus. Therefore the term brother was used for those who were not sons of Mary the Mother of Jesus.”?
Lets see - assume your case, and call it proven. That makes life simple for the author.
>>This is refuted in the original posting.<<
Actually, not even close. It is argued, but not refuted. It is actually argued quite poorly. There are two other biblical issues that I have seen argued with equal contorting of scripture: Church of Christ arguing that musical instruments are inapropriate; homosexual priests arguing that homosexuality is not a sin.
The three all use scripture in the same way. It just proves that if your pet issue is important enough, you can - in your own mind at least - interpret scripture to say anything you want.
I think we all do it but tend to be blind to our own personal examples. But further study should cause us to alter our position as our error is discovered.