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To: RobRoy; GonzoII; Petronski
Yep. And how was Jesus (who was fully man) as a child, decades before he was baptized? We don’t know, other than the stories actually in the bible. And I remember something about his parents being upset with him for not telling them where he was.

I don't even know what point you are trying to make here.

I know lots of married couples with one, or no, kids. Although I don’t have a camera in their bedroom, I suspect they are having sex from time to time.

The ONLY PROOF that has ever been offered that the Blessed Mother was not a virgin is other children. Moreover, unless either the husband or wife is infertile, it is nearly impossible for a couple to only one child or no children unless contraception is being used.

147 posted on 11/03/2009 12:58:01 PM PST by wagglebee ("A political party cannot be all things to all people." -- Ronald Reagan, 3/1/75)
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To: wagglebee

“The ONLY PROOF that has ever been offered that the Blessed Mother was not a virgin is other children.”

Well, that’s enough to convince ME!


150 posted on 11/03/2009 1:02:43 PM PST by Mr Rogers (I loathe the ground he slithers on!)
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To: wagglebee

>>The ONLY PROOF that has ever been offered that the Blessed Mother was not a virgin is other children. Moreover, unless either the husband or wife is infertile, it is nearly impossible for a couple to only one child or no children unless contraception is being used.<<

I agree with everything you said there. And with that, it would be very reasonable to assume, based on everything I read in the bible on the subject, that AFTER Jesus’ birth, Mary and her husband had sex. And, more to the point, there is no evidence whatsoever to suggest they did not. It is actually an extraordinary claim. And extraordinary claims require extraordinary evidence.


157 posted on 11/03/2009 1:22:09 PM PST by RobRoy (The US today: Revelation 18:4)
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To: wagglebee

>>I don’t even know what point you are trying to make here.<<

The point I am trying to make is that “mom and dad” got upset with “God”, just like the normal parent-child relationship. Their family may have been more normal than many presume.


159 posted on 11/03/2009 1:23:21 PM PST by RobRoy (The US today: Revelation 18:4)
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To: wagglebee

Moreover, unless either the husband or wife is infertile, it is nearly impossible for a couple to only one child or no children unless contraception is being used.


I won’t go into details here, but I know for a simple fact that is incorrect. There are any number of conditions that would cause a couple to become effectively infertile even though they already have a child.


200 posted on 11/03/2009 2:20:33 PM PST by Brookhaven (http://theconservativehand.blogspot.com/)
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