O.k. clearly you interpret differently, but the question is do you agree that “Later of [the] Sabbaths” is a possibility? Or do you maintain that it is impossible? And if so, then for what specific reason? I mean on the merits of the syntax and grammar alone without bringing in the larger context to tip the balance one way or the other.
Either way is grammatically plausible and adaptable to fit the chronology with in a late Passover resurrection hypothesis.
Best Regards