[Pmary65]

Daniel Gregg said in Post # 79

“2. Robertson, pg. 646, "It is a point, for exegesis, not for grammar, to decide." The reason Roberston must say this is that it depends on the interpretation of the following gentive, and not on the lexical meaning of οψε, whose meaning is implicitly conceeded by the use of this argument NOT to be "after", and thus agrees with the main thesis of the editorial objection in Thayer's Lexicon. As for the further claim of the editor that the ablative is not in fact used in examples provided, the jury is still out until the source contexts of those examples can be rechecked.” [End Quote]

Here are the direct quotes from the Grammar book section that Mr. Gregg was referring to;

'A GRAMMAR OF THE GREEK NEW TESTAMENT IN THE LIGHT OF HISTORICAL RESEARCH'

Af T.' ROBERTSON, M.A., D.D., LL.D [Quotes Begin]

37 (ii/B.C). Hence in Mt. 28: 1 οψε σαββατων may be either late on the Sabbath or after the Sabbath. Either has good support. Moulton^ is uncertain, while Blass(2) prefers 'after.' It is a point for exegesis, not for grammar, to decide. If Matthew has in mind just before sunset, 'late on' would be his idea; if he means after sunset, then 'after' is correct.

[Quotes End] A GRAMMAR OF THE GREEK NEW TESTAMENT IN THE LIGHT OF HISTORICAL RESEARCH

HODDER & STOUGHTON NEW YORK GEORGE H. DORAN COMPANY COPYRIGHT, 1914 BY GEORGE H. DORAN COMPANY [Quotes End]

* Robert Young had a different take on the Greek word ‘οψε’ where he shows it as 'eve' for ' Matthew 28:1 in 'Young's Literal Translation'. Although it is not totally clear this may have been in reference to a moment of time within the day, alone by itself.

For an alternative description of the crucifixion – resurrection events please feel free to visit;

http://pmary65.wordpress.com/

Best Regards – Pmary65

[Daniel Gregg]

Of course Robertson does not include all of the possible senses of the gentive and Matthew 28:1. He only includes the ones that make sense to him. Once he says it is a matter for exegesis, he is allowing the whole range of meaning for the genitive. That's the point. One has to separate the linguistics from the personal conclusions of the author. The quotation from BLASS is more revealing, as BLASS shows that one the way to his argument "Late from the sabbath" one must pass through the possibility of later of the sabbaths. Yet still they are ignoring the plural σαββατων.

I looked at your blog. We discussed whether Yeshua ate the 15th seder or not on CARM quite a bit, and Diego here also, but I have not written a focusd paper on it yet, just forum comments -- nothing organized and formal. After stumbling on to ראשית המצות and concluding the basis of my former paper, I now have the writing of the 15 seder/vs. 14 seder one on my agenda. Heretofore, there are only brief remarks in my book.