So Jesus was transfigured and glorified BEFORE he completed a perfect sinless life? Before he was crucified?
God called up the "ghost" of Moses and Elijah? He called up the dead?
Deu 18:10 There shall not be found among you anyone who makes his son or his daughter pass through the fire, or one who practices witchcraft, or a soothsayer, or one who interprets omens, or a sorcerer,
Deu 18:11 or one who conjures spells, or a medium, or a spiritist, or one who calls up the dead.
Deu 18:12 For all who do these things are an abomination to the LORD, and because of these abominations the LORD your God drives them out from before you.
It's an abomination to the Lord, Jesus Christ, to have someone try to call up the dead. So it's not likely that he himself would do it.
On the other hand a vision of a future kingdom where Moses and Elijah have been resurrected makes perfect sense in the context of the total scripture on the subject.
I would also advise you to look up all the usages of "homara" in new testament scripture. In nearly every verse, save one, it's translated as "vision". And it always refers to a supernatural event that while real, didn't didn't happen in objective reality.
Was Jesus sinless at that moment? YES, He was in the glory he had from before the beginning of time (Joh 17:5 )
God called up the "ghost" of Moses and Elijah? He called up the dead?
What a laughable strawman, except that it blasphemous many times over. For starters, specifically show me where in the scripture passages involved here that the term 'ghost' or equivalent term is used (crickets) Jesus answers you lame accusation -
Mk 3: 22 ¶ And the scribes which came down from Jerusalem said, He hath Beelzebub, and by the prince of the devils casteth he out devils.
23 And he called them unto him, and said unto them in parables, How can Satan cast out Satan?
24 And if a kingdom be divided against itself, that kingdom cannot stand.
25 And if a house be divided against itself, that house cannot stand.
26* And if Satan rise up against himself, and be divided, he cannot stand, but hath an end.
27 No man can enter into a strong man’s house, and spoil his goods, except he will first bind the strong man; and then he will spoil his house.
28* Verily I say unto you, All sins shall be forgiven unto the sons of men, and blasphemies wherewith soever they shall blaspheme:
29 But he that shall blaspheme against the Holy Ghost hath never forgiveness, but is in danger of eternal damnation:
30* Because they said, He hath an unclean spirit.
It's an abomination to the Lord, Jesus Christ, to have someone try to call up the dead. So it's not likely that he himself would do it.
Perhaps you should do a more detailed word study on the subject. Jesus had the power and authority to cast out demons by the legion. God has the power to permit Jesus to speak with the eternal 'spirits' of these men and not demons impersonating them (real meanings of your Deut posting)
On the other hand a vision of a future kingdom where Moses and Elijah have been resurrected makes perfect sense in the context of the total scripture on the subject.
Sorry, the Gospels tell a completely different story doug in the parallel accounts as well as the context of the whole bible. I see a lot of opinion and no bible to support this claim of yours.
I would also advise you to look up all the usages of "homara" in new testament scripture. In nearly every verse, save one, it's translated as "vision". And it always refers to a supernatural event that while real, didn't didn't happen in objective reality.
And yet the other two gospel witnesses to the event use words reflecting physical vision, and they cannot be ignored within the context of scripture - a fact that you have yet to face up to in your 'explanation'. Furthermore, definitions of word are based upon context, and while usage is important, to insist on a singular definition when the other testimonies to the event make it clear that the other definition is correct.
If this was a simple 'vision' as you claim, why was it necessary for them to separate from the rest and go to a high mountain if this was just a 'spiritual' vision, and not a physical one. Secondly, all the other 'spiritual' visions occur with only one person at a time, this involved 3 persons in broad day light.
vs 2 "transformed before them" - indicative mood - a simple statement of fact.
vs 3 "there appeared " - also indicative, simple statement of fact
And were these three talking about the 'future kingdom', what does the scripture say?
Lk 9: 31* Who appeared in glory, and spake of his decease which he should accomplish at Jerusalem.
Context means a lot here, and context doesn't support you interpretation that they were talking about a future kingdom, the scriptures tell us they were speaking about the here and now.