A hopelessly simplistic explanation. You can't understand the context of his actions unless you take into account the wars of succession that had plagued England for a couple of centuries prior to Henry VII's accession to the throne.
A major underlying issue in the divorce drama was Henry's (and England's) need for the queen to produce a male heir.
That takes nothing away from Henry's other faults, but you can't just ignore what had gone before.
If it weren’t for the need for diplomatic relations with Spain, would there have been a problem with Henry putting a bastard prince on the throne?