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Well, I did a Google search for “parables in John 6” and the first page had this site:
http://www.wcg.org/lit/bible/gospels/parable2.htm

The author here has a table listing parables. John is not on the table.

He does however insist John has Jesus using “metaphor”, but not parables.

Shall I keep searching? Keep in mind that was in the first 10 hits on Google. Try it. Bible scholars agree there are no parables in John. Parables contain a “character” or “object” used to make a point in a story. Christ always explained what He really meant at the end of the parable. There are no parables in John. Now, all we can discuss is whether or not Christ is speaking metaphorically. He repeats His message 12 times, and 4 times graphically. In what parable does He repeat the same message over and over? When did He ever speak metaphorically without clarifying for the Apostles what He wanted them to understand?

He would not do that to them. He wanted them to understand completely and He always corrected them when they misunderstood. Christ was speaking literally in John 6. He wanted us to continuously eat His miraculous flesh in order to have life until the end of time. The feast of Passover is a foreshadowing meant to help the Jews recognize the truth of what Christ said here. He told them, “My flesh is REAL food and my blood is REAL drink.” Why on earth would He ever say such a thing-— unless He meant just that? In John 6:56 and John 15:10, we have the ONLY two instances where Christ told us HOW to remain in Him: we must obey the commandments and receive Him frequently in the Eucharist.

Why would Christ say to the grumbling disciples, who had seen him do amazing miracles and were now rocked to the core by this strange teaching, “Does this offend you?”

This is the ONLY time his disciples left because of one of His teachings. Think of what wonders they had seen Him do? Would they now leave Him over a metaphor?

Why does Paul say, “For anyone who eats and drinks without RECOGNIZING the BODY of the Lord eats and drinks judgment on himself” in 1Cor 11:28? Why would he say that if this is all just a metaphor? Would Paul issue such a serious warning over a mere symbol?

Why are the followers eyes opened after celebrating the Eucharist? Why does Judas rush off to betray Jesus immediately after receiving the first Eucharistic meal? Why is Christ foretold to be a priest according to the style of Melchizedek?

It’s just too many coincidences. Too many threads. I don’t think anyone can say that it’s ridiculous for Catholics to believe this. We have more proof He wasn’t speaking metaphorically than those who say He was. Take an objective look. Investigate why Catholics believe this. It’s not hooey. It’s what Christ said, and meant.

(Sorry about the caps. I’m not shouting. I just don’t know how to underline on FR.) God bless you.