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To: kosta50; Mr Rogers; stfassisi
if doctrine is not derived from the scripture, that flies in the face of what the scripture says about scripture (cf. 2 Tim 3:16)

2 Tim 3:16 does not say that docrine should be derived from the scripture. It says that the scripture is useful "to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct", exactly how the Catholic Church uses it.

Catholics use scripture to justify doctrine/dogma (i.e. papal supremacy with Matthew 16, etc).

Petrine supremacy is rather clear from the renaming of Simon, the grant of keys, the selection of Peter as the visible foundation of the Christ's Church, the purchase of the Temple rights, the charge to convert the brethren as they are corrupted by Satan, and to feed the sheep. Whether or not Petrine Supremacy translates to Papal infallibility is a matter of episcopacies agreeing with this doctrine; the Catholic bishops agree with it, and some other bishops, sadly, choose not to. Naturally, there would be no scripture telling us to obey Pope Benedict XVI, describing the ascension of Mary, or many other things necessary for the formation of the flock today.

On a personal note, I often argue for the Catholic faith at FR using the Protestant method of "Scripture alone". I do so not because the method is valid in all applications, but because it is sufficient and effective in order to show the Protestant doctrinal error. I hope people who follow my arguments that are based on the Holy Scripture do not take them as an admission of Sola Scriptura as a valid proposition; it is most emphatically not. "All scripture, inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct in justice, That the man of God may be perfect, furnished to every good work."

63 posted on 08/24/2009 7:37:17 AM PDT by annalex (http://www.catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea.php)
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To: annalex; Mr Rogers; stfassisi
2 Tim 3:16 does not say that docrine should be derived from the scripture. It says that the scripture is useful "to teach, to reprove, to correct, to instruct", exactly how the Catholic Church uses it

Alex, of all opeople I don't have to tell you what διδασκαλία means, do I? In context it was used as a specific nboun and not a general verb.

πασα [all] γραφη [scripture] θεοπνευστος [(is) God-breathed] και [and] ωφελιμος [useful] προς [for] διδασκαλιαν [teaching] προς [for] ελεγμον [reproof] προς [for] επανορθωσιν [correction] προς [for] παιδειαν [training] την εν [in] δικαιοσυνη [righteousness]

Alex, προς διδασκαλιαν for teaching, for that which is taught, i.e. for doctrine, not "to teach," as the translators of your verison of the Bible saw fit to translate in order to twist the meaning and dissasociate the Bible from being necessary for deriving doctrine, and claiming instead a Depsit of Faith for that purpose...how convenient.

Sorry, all I see here is (yet) another perfect example how diffrenet communities twist and spin the scriptures to fit their own agenda.

67 posted on 08/24/2009 1:32:10 PM PDT by kosta50 (Don't look up, the truth is all around you)
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