***As written when and by whom? By the author of Hebrews? By the author of 2 Peter? Who were Matthew, Mark, Luke and John? Who wrote Revelation? We dont know
Granting that we don’t, — so?***
So we defer to the Church as to its interpretation. It doesn’t matter that the translation from Greek to Greek to Greek to Latin to Latin to English to English is less than pure. It only matters that the interpretation is.
Yes, I agree.
But I think Mr. Rogers was asking (and rightfully so) what is that interpretation based on, and what makes it authoritative in an absolute sense if not on faith alone? That's hardly a proof.