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To: kosta50

***I must add in that we never state that the OT is false or in any way wrong or in error. We do say that the NT is a continuation of the OT and that WE are a continuation of God’s expanding plan to save the peoples of the universe.
Then why is the OT not sitting on the altar together with the Gospels? Rather it is read only in the post Vatican II Church. For at least 1,700 years, the Catholic Church read Epistles 9by lay people) and Gospels (by priests and deacons) in that order during Mass, only to introduce the OT in 1964 (for politically correct reasons)!

Perhaps the Church doesn’t consider the OT not in spiritual error, but not on the par with the Gospels either (and yet both are supposed to be the words of the very same God).***

Even more interesting; we regard the words of Matthew, Mark, Luke, John, Paul, Peter, James, and Jude as more relevant than the OT, some at least of which was considered to be dictated by God.

***The Church is not a continuation of Judaism but something that did NOT exist until 33 AD (remember, Christ established the Church?), based on what is believed to have been taught by Jesus and recorded in the Gospels.

The OT is to be read allegorically, as Phylo (a hellenized Jews) taught (I believe Eusebius even refers to him as “St.” Phylo because of the influence he had on the way Christians interpreted the OT), through the prism of the Gospels, in other words looking for Jesus archetypes and prefiguring of his birth.

That’s not how the Jews read it. There is no doubt that the Church thinks that the Jews got it all wrong or else we would all be Jews! How can they be right as far as Christians are concerned if they rejected, and still reject Christ form the get go?

And why did the NT writers use Septuagint and not the Hebrew Scriptures in over 90% of the cases when making references to the OT if the Hebrew Scriptures are never wrong?***

The changes to the beliefs were more supported by the Hellenistic Septuagint, obviously.


347 posted on 08/11/2009 5:37:10 PM PDT by MarkBsnr ( I would not believe in the Gospel if the authority of the Catholic Church did not move me to do so.)
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To: MarkBsnr; kosta50

“...why did the NT writers use Septuagint and not the Hebrew Scriptures in over 90% of the cases when making references to the OT if the Hebrew Scriptures are never wrong?”

Because the NT was written in Greek, not Hebrew?


348 posted on 08/11/2009 5:47:21 PM PDT by Mr Rogers (I loathe the ground he slithers on!)
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