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To: aMorePerfectUnion

The argument from the silence of Sacred Scripture is highly significant and is strong proof in itself. If the Blessed Virgin Mary had other children then where were they? Why is there no mention of them by name at any point in Scripture? And in particular why did they not accompany and support their mother and their brother during the Passion and on Calvary at the moment of their supreme agony?

The direct Scriptural passage which substantiates Mary’s perpetual virginity is Luke, 1:34. The consensus of Latin theologians is that this passage indicates that Our Lady took a vow of perpetual virginity. If she had not made such a vow then her response to the angel makes very little sense.

On the excellence of virginity see 1 Corinthians 7:6-8,38 and Apocaplypse 14:4. Scripture, tradition and Our Lord’s own example strongly commends a celibate life and it is of surprise that the Protestant’s have not as a whole made much, if any, space for consecrated celibacy within their communities.

The veneration of the BVM is an imitation on our part of Christ’s own example of his perfect fulfillment of the 4th/5th Commandment. We are called to imitate Our Lord and therefore also to give perfect honour - as he did - to his mother. What could be more scriptural than this?


130 posted on 08/08/2009 2:13:20 PM PDT by Vera Lex
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To: Vera Lex

Vera Lex,
First, thank you for responding.

Given the command that married couples are not
to withhold themselves from each other except
at certain times, which are to be limited,
is no argument from silence.

Unfortunately, the passage you quote in Luke
does not state she remained a virgin - only
that she was at the time.

Please do not take that as a criticism of your
belief, just my attempt to explore this issue
from the Scriptures. Nor is it a denial of
Tradition. I’m just asking.

And I appreciate your response.

Best,
ampu


144 posted on 08/08/2009 4:40:49 PM PDT by aMorePerfectUnion
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