Thank you. So there is no scriptural claim that Mary was sinless, just an inference running counter to 2000 years of Orthodox tradition.
Mary could have been purified and filled with grace at any time from conception to a second before the angel's visit. We don't know - it is not stated as such.
Would it not be more logical - and consistent - to conclude that Mary was sinful until the point she was filled with grace when she was visited by the angel? She was clearly born with sin (Romans 3:23 and Romans 5:12) like all people since Adam (see the Council of Trent).
Clearly this is a case where doctrine is ex scriptura; and in fact it requires conclusions that deny scripture to maintain itself (eternally chaste Mary in face of the overwhelming scriptural evidence to the contrary).
I am not stating this to say that the Catholic Church is evil or corrupting. Rather, I - like all men and all institutions of men in infallible! It's important to realize that; 2 Timothy 3 is quite instructive as well.
This is why we must constantly judge the claims of man against the scripture. When the two are in conflict, scripture simply must trump.
Well, it is strictly speaking an inference. There is no scripture that says “Mary was free from sin and had no other children”. We are supposed to think as well as read, no?
This is just as much an inference as the Trinity is the inference. There is not scripture that says “God is one in three Persons”. The idea that unless there is a clear scriptural prooftext is itself am extrascriptural, in fact, counterscriptural inference.
You are incorrect that the sinlessness, as well as perpetual virginity of Virgin Mary is not held by the Orthodox. They have objections to the doctrine of Immaculate Conception. Their objection is not based on what is ar os not stated in the Holy Scripture, but rather to the manner in which it was adopted by the Church in Rome. At times, they also miscast the doctrine, which is unfortunate but has nothing to do with our argument here.
I agree that the doctrines must be checked by the Scripture. That happens to be a Cathoic teaching as well.
“So there is no scriptural claim that Mary was sinless, just an inference running counter to 2000 years of Orthodox tradition.”
Quite the opposite, P. We Orthodox call her Panagia because we believe that she was in fact sinless throughout her life in accord with the Consensus Patrum. We do not however accept the IC since in our understanding of the Sin of Adam, there is no need for it.