As a follow-up, was the Inquisition?
Finally, would you like to make a comparison as to whether Catholic tradition vs. Protestant doctrine has more of a Biblical basis?
PS: Where can I find the Biblical basis for a celibate priesthood? Is it the Old, or New Testament? I just find it odd that a Catholic uses Holy Scripture as a basis for justifying his denomination's doctrine; when I've engaged in theological debates with Roman Catholics, I'm always told that "church tradition" counts as much as Biblical authority.
One never could "buy" indulgences. The financial scandal surrounding indulgences, the scandal that gave Martin Luther an excuse for his heterodoxy, involved alms—indulgences in which the giving of alms to some charitable fund or foundation was used as the occasion to grant the indulgence. There was no outright selling of indulgences. The Catholic Encyclopedia states: "[I]t is easy to see how abuses crept in. Among the good works which might be encouraged by being made the condition of an indulgence, almsgiving would naturally hold a conspicuous place. . . . It is well to observe that in these purposes there is nothing essentially evil. To give money to God or to the poor is a praiseworthy act, and, when it is done from right motives, it will surely not go unrewarded."
You never answered my question. Were those Catholics for the 1500 years prior to Luther wrong?