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To: HossB86

Original sin did spread from one, Adams and was redeemed by one, Christ. That is the Catholic teaching.

Two outstanding questions for you:

- whose blood was Mary quick to shed?
- where does the Scripture say that Jesus alone is without sin?

Do you understand the questions or do I need to explain something about them?


261 posted on 01/29/2009 10:31:18 AM PST by annalex (http://www.catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea.php)
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To: annalex

Okay. One last time, and I’m done. You won’t listen (or can’t), but here’s what I found:

Let’s visit Matthew 19:
“16 And behold, a man came up to him, saying, “Teacher, what good deed must I do to have eternal life?” 17And he said to him, “Why do you ask me about what is good? There is only one who is good.”

This is Jesus talking. Who is the one? Mary? Joseph? No...God. And, since Jesus is God the Son, and already proven sinless by a previous post, ONLY CHRIST was sinless on this earth. Adam and Eve were CREATED sinless, but they sinned. Jesus, God’s Son, did not ever sin. And since God is the only ‘one’ who is good — only Christ.

As for the appeal to bloodshed, that is one example of sinfulness. But that’s obfuscatory in itself - -BY DEFINITION, Mary was born. Since she was born, she was born IN SIN. And, let’s look at one last verse:

Luke 1:47:
“47 and my spirit rejoices in God my Savior,”

Her spirit rejoiced in God HER SAVIOR. If she was born sinless, she did not require salvation; she was without sin. Christ came to save the sinners (all of us who are predestined, called, etc.) not the sinless. But, since Mary said herself that her spirit rejoiced in God HER SAVIOR, she herself recognized her sinfulness and need of a savior.

Now. I’m done. I hope God will open your heart to him.

Hoss


262 posted on 01/29/2009 11:39:21 AM PST by HossB86
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