The proof has been shown by scripture that neither Mary nor any other person is without sin. Your spin annalex doesn’t amount to a hill of beans.
All the literal translations use ‘favor’ not ‘grace’ for that verse. But you content all the experts are wrong and your interpretation is correct even though it comes from someone who’s religion gives more weight to tradition and superstition than the word of God.
And even if grace was the proper english word to use in this scripture it still does not even hint at Mary being without sin. It is clear Mary found favor with God and He chose her to give birth to His Son Jesus the Messiah.
What kind of literality is it to translate the same word differently? That is plain obfuscation.
One filled with grace is without sin. Sin and grace do not coexist, as grace is stronger than sin (Romans 5:20)