[GonzoII]

“Bishop of Alexandria have jurisdiction in all these.”
—

It sounds like there talking about how a Bishop is elected, what does that have to do with the Primacy?

[OLD REGGIE]

It sounds like there talking about how a Bishop is elected, what does that have to do with the Primacy?

No, the Bishop of Alexandria has the same authority in his jurisdiction as the Bishop of Rome has in his.

The Bishop of Rome (the word "Pope" was invented much later) could not appoint Bishops in the territory in which the Bishop of Alexandria had jurisdiction.

There was no such thing as primacy of the "Pope" at the time.

Let the ancient customs in Egypt, Libya and Pentapolis prevail, that the Bishop of Alexandria have jurisdiction in all these, since the like is customary for the Bishop of Rome also. Likewise in Antioch and the other provinces, let the Churches retain their privileges.