Please do not presume to tell me what I know to be true or not true. The full formula is: "I absolve you of your sins IN THE NAME OF THE FATHER, AND OF THE SON, AND OF THE HOLY SPIRIT." As a lawyer I would think that you would understand the significance of these words, the priest acting as the agent of God.
That Absolvo te of the Western confession seems to me to be the height of spiritual arrogance. As I said earlier, why would a mere instrument say that?
Why, because that is the language with which our Lord described the sacrament:
Whose sins YOU SHALL FORGIVE, they are forgiven them; and whose sins YOU SHALL RETAIN, they are retained.ἄν τινων ἀφῆτε τὰς ἁμαρτίας ἀφέωνται αὐτοῖς, ἄν τινων κρατῆτε κεκράτηνται.
“As a lawyer I would think that you would understand the significance of these words, the priest acting as the agent of God.”
Because I am a lawyer I can tell you that your understanding of agency is incorrect. Stick with “instrument”, especially a non-autonomous instrument. Christ’s words are clear. The priest does not effectuate the forgiveness, God does. Christ’s sacramental ministry is accomplished through His Church acting by her the priests. Or is it your claim that God is bound by the action of a Roman Catholic priest, His “agent”?
If it were not God the Father who is significant in forgiving our sin, i.e. the forgiver, who by the Son all judgment has been given, wouldn't Scripture have been better expressed to eliminate this possibility? For example, it might still be true that God forgives those sins, which have also been forgiven by His bride, and if His bride does not forgive them, then He retains them. Meanwhile, our confession is to God, through faith in Christ by 1st John 1:9. When we turn back to God (repentance) and confess our known and unknown sin to Him, He is sure and just to forgive us that sin. I understand there might be multiple liabilities involved, between numerous persons in our trespasses, so it is still important to return to fellowship with fellow believers after we sin, where our sin may have caused disruption in the body. But our priority would still be with our relationship with God first before our relationship with other people. I tend to concur with Kolokotronis, in that our confession to return to fellowship with God is performed by God. Meanwhile, when Christ forgave sins, it was well understood by His fellow Jews that such forgiveness only came from God, not by man, but this might touch on the doctrine of kenosis, where Christ forgave our sins in His humanity, and where it was righteous justice and holy, God the Father also forgave those sins prior to the Ascension and Session.\ Is there anything in Scripture used by Catholicism to more formally express the meaning of the quoted Scripture? I still see it possible that the Divine forgiveness is still retained by God and if by man, only by the Son to whom all judgment has been given.
If it were not God the Father who is significant in forgiving our sin, i.e. the forgiver, who by the Son all judgment has been given, wouldn't Scripture have been better expressed to eliminate this possibility?
For example, it might still be true that God forgives those sins, which have also been forgiven by His bride, and if His bride does not forgive them, then He retains them.
Meanwhile, our confession is to God, through faith in Christ by 1st John 1:9. When we turn back to God (repentance) and confess our known and unknown sin to Him, He is sure and just to forgive us that sin.
I understand there might be multiple liabilities involved, between numerous persons in our trespasses, so it is still important to return to fellowship with fellow believers after we sin, where our sin may have caused disruption in the body. But our priority would still be with our relationship with God first before our relationship with other people.
I tend to concur with Kolokotronis, in that our confession to return to fellowship with God is performed by God. Meanwhile, when Christ forgave sins, it was well understood by His fellow Jews that such forgiveness only came from God, not by man, but this might touch on the doctrine of kenosis, where Christ forgave our sins in His humanity, and where it was righteous justice and holy, God the Father also forgave those sins prior to the Ascension and Session.
Is there anything in Scripture used by Catholicism to more formally express the meaning of the quoted Scripture? I still see it possible that the Divine forgiveness is still retained by God and if by man, only by the Son to whom all judgment has been given.