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To: GonzoII; Gamecock
But this doesn't square with St Paul who is quite clear on the bodily presence of Christ in the Eucharist....

1Cor:10:16: The cup of blessing which we bless, is it not the communion of the blood of Christ? The bread which we break, is it not the communion of the body of Christ? (KJV)

Paul uses the term koinonia (fellowship, communion) to describe the relationship between the cup/bread and the blood/body of Christ. There is no necessary assertion of bodily presence in the elements in that relationship.

Paul’s words denote a sacramental union between the sign and the thing signified and nothing more. "There is, in every sacrament, a spiritual relation, or sacramental union, between the sign and the thing signified: whence it comes to pass, that the names and effects of the one are attributed to the other." (Westminster Confession of Faith, 27:2)

20 posted on 12/29/2008 8:01:55 AM PST by topcat54 ("Friends don't let friends become dispensationalists.")
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To: topcat54
"There is no necessary assertion of bodily presence in the elements in that relationship.

How does one die then, by coming into contact with this "non body":

29 For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily, eateth and drinketh judgment to himself, not discerning the body of the Lord. 30 Therefore are there many infirm and weak among you, and many sleep.

Also, Christ makes it clear at the last supper: "This is my body"

The Greek phrase is "Touto estin to soma mou." This phraseology means "this is actually" or "this is really" my body and blood.

Paul uses the same Greek in 1Cor 11:24

How can God delclare something to be, and it be not?

21 posted on 12/29/2008 8:26:59 AM PST by GonzoII ("That they may be one...Father")
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