To: 50sDad
I am NOT pursuing a flamewar, just trying to be sure I understand what people believe...is it the view of the Catholic leadership and therefore its people that Mary, physical mother of Jesus, held not only most favored woman status at his birth for being sinless, but also, from that point forward, never, ever, sinned? That is, she was a sinless human? Thank for the question. The Church teaches that Mary, from the moment of conception was without sin due to the merits of her Son, Jesus Christ.
But Mary was not only "most favored woman" (poor translation) but "Full of Grace".
12 posted on
12/08/2008 7:15:39 AM PST by
frogjerk
(Welcome|Goodbye to|from Free|Fairness Doctrine Republic!)
To: frogjerk; 50sDad
Just to add my two cents to the issue of the Angelic Salutation (since I read Greek), the original Greek with which Gabriel saluted the Virgin Mary is kecaritwmenh. It's an interesting word, because it's a complicated verb form in Greek that indicates a perpetual existence from forever - my grammar is getting shaky, but it's I believe a passive perfect participle - in other words, Mary was "graced" always and continuing and completely. Which is why the verb is often translated as "full of grace".
14 posted on
12/08/2008 7:26:19 AM PST by
AnAmericanMother
(Ministrix of ye Chasse (TTGC Ladies' Auxiliary - recess appointment))
To: frogjerk
That does make sense that she would need to be sinless. If Jesus was also fully human, how could a sinner partake in raising him? I would have to agree with the church.
15 posted on
12/08/2008 7:27:49 AM PST by
Soothesayer
(The United States of America Rest in Peace November 4 2008)
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