Hardly. In 1 Cor. 15:29-30, Paul mentions people being baptized on behalf of the dead, in the context of atoning for their sins (people are baptized on the dead’s behalf so the dead can be raised). These people cannot be in heaven because they are still with sin, but they also cannot be in hell because their sins can no longer be atoned for. They are in purgatory. These verses directly correspond to 2 Macc. 12:44-45 which also shows specific prayers for the dead, so that they may be forgiven of their sin.
Similarly, in 2 Tim. 1:16-18, Onesiphorus is dead but Paul asks for mercy on him “on that day.” Paul’s use of “that day” demonstrates its eschatological usage (see, for example, Rom. 2.5,16; 1 Cor. 1.8; 3.13; 5.5; 2 Cor. 1.14; Phil. 1.6,10; 2.16; 1 Thess. 5.2,4,5,8; 2 Thess. 2.2,3; 2 Tim. 4.8). Of course, there is no need for mercy in heaven, and there is no mercy given in hell. So, where is Onesiphorus? He is in purgatory.
We especially see this in Rev. 21:27 which says that nothing unclean shall enter heaven. The word “unclean” comes from the Greek word “koinon” which refers to a spiritual corruption. Even the propensity to sin is spiritually corrupt, or considered unclean, and must be purified before entering heaven.
It is amazing how many Protestants do not want to believe in purgatory. Purgatory exists because of the mercy of God. If there were no purgatory, this would also likely mean no salvation for most people. God is merciful indeed.
“In 1 Cor. 15:29-30, Paul mentions people being baptized on behalf of the dead, in the context of atoning for their sins (people are baptized on the dead’s behalf so the dead can be raised).”
I didn’t bother to finish reading your post since you obviously have a serious problem interpreting the verse you quoted. What you think it says is totally opposite of what Paul was referring to.
That seems a guess or "reasonings and assumptions" of man. One needs to torture the text (and make assumptions upon which to base yet more assumption upon) to wring the idea out of the texts.
To other, simpler "explanations" we perhaps should instead believe, as to possible afterlife "condition", if one not be either in Heaven, or in Hell;
There was some other condition or place mentioned in the Word.
Where the previous godly "slept". There is other evidence of this "sleeping", in the texts also. One was "wakened" from this slumber (sleep of the dead) by some sort of spiritualist, or medium. Remember that one? Right now, It escapes me, precisely where that portion of text is --- but was it done on the behest of King Saul? It was error, though, to go waking up the dead. That rang through pretty clear.
Please don't ask me to provide the direct references, for I'd have to go digging for it, and the last time I gave reasonable answer to a question from you, I received no response. Remember? At least that time, it was easy enough. All I had to do was quote the article which was quoting the Pope.
Maybe someone else here will remember the incident I'm referring to concerning the medium, and bring us the scripture reference.