Free Republic
Browse · Search
Religion
Topics · Post Article

To: kosta50
Christ says in no uncertain terms that he was "sent except [or only] for the lost sheep of the house of Israel (Mat 15:24), and he also explains what that means: no Gentiles and not even Samaritans (cf Mat 10:5-6). NT makes it equally clear that the witness to the Gentiles was not planned but a result of Israel's rejection of Christ (cf Act 13:46)— basically a "do or die" step.

What of the Great Commission (Mt. 28:18-19)? "And Jesus coming, spoke to them, saying: All power is given to me in heaven and in earth. Going therefore, teach ye all nations; baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of the Holy Ghost."

And Acts 1:8? "But you shall receive the power of the Holy Ghost coming upon you, and you shall be witnesses unto me in Jerusalem, and in all Judea, and Samaria, and even to the uttermost part of the earth."

The ministry to the Gentiles is simply not in the OT or in the Gospels.

Also, what of Malachi 1:11, where the "clean oblation" is regarded to be the Eucharistic sacrifice? "For from the rising of the sun even to the going down, my name is great among the Gentiles, and in every place there is sacrifice, and there is offered to my name a clean oblation: for my name is great among the Gentiles, saith the Lord of hosts."

35 posted on 08/06/2008 1:33:58 PM PDT by GCC Catholic (Sour grapes make terrible whine.)
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 34 | View Replies ]


To: GCC Catholic
What of the Great Commission (Mt. 28:18-19)?

The Great Commission (which conflicts with Mark's account),if it was part of the original manuscript, says "making disciples" (maqhteusate)of all tribes/or nations (panta ta eqnh.

The word ethnos in Greek can mean any heterogeneous group, a multitude, a gathering of people, a tribe, or even a nation pretty much one and the same thing). It is not specific to a "nation." Of course, we like to translate it as the nation for obvious reasons.

He could have just as well meant (which would be in agreement with his own statement about why he was sent) tribes of Israel.

And Acts 1:8? "But you shall receive the power of the Holy Ghost coming upon you, and you shall be witnesses unto me in Jerusalem, and in all Judea, and Samaria, and even to the uttermost part of the earth."

Utmost part of the earth would have surely included the holy Aostolic See of Rome, Alexandria, Constantinople, Antioch, etc. where the Church was to be established in its fullness.

Instead, he talks about Judea and Samaria, all converging to Jerusalem. There is a reason for this. If you read about his encounter with a Samaritan woman who gave him water, he also mentionns Jerusalem.

That's because Samaritans are Jews, their names are Jewish, their scripture is Torah, and in fact they practice OT Judaism to this day, along with animal sacrifices. But they believe that the Temple is not supposed to be in Jerusalem and that makes them "heretics" in the eyes of the mainline Judaism.

So, he was expressing a desire and wish of bringing Samaritans "back" into the fold, that they may accept Jerusalem as the "Mecca." He makes no mention of his churches established in gentile lands, as if they don ;t matter; he only speaks of Judea and Samaria in particular.

The word "earth" means country or state. This is a concept to be found in Slavic and the languages, where the word for country or state is the same as the word for earth. In fact the Russian island in the north is called Novaya Zemlya, meaning New Earth.

In Greek, the word ge (as in geology) means arable land, the ground, territory or a region, not unnecessarily the entire earth, but it can mean that too. So, form the context he was apparently talking about Israel as a whole.

Also, what of Malachi 1:11, where the "clean oblation" is regarded to be the Eucharistic sacrifice?

From the context, it is obvious that he is talking about animal sacrifices. God is "offended" with lame animals; he wats nothing but pure stock. Indignantly he says "would you offer such (imperfrect gifts) to your governor?"

The word goy (goyim for plural) means a confluence of people, a tribe, or a nation such as Israel (one language, one faith); it is also used for the descendants sof Abraham, and even of the Jews. This word is equivalent to the word Gentile and basically means unbelievers. The OT (I believe Gensis) calls certain tribe of Hebrews as "goyim" (Gentiles).

And as for the incense, it is part of the Jewish liturgical service. The OT God is know for liking the "sweet smell"—what anthropomorphism!

38 posted on 08/06/2008 2:35:20 PM PDT by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 35 | View Replies ]

Free Republic
Browse · Search
Religion
Topics · Post Article


FreeRepublic, LLC, PO BOX 9771, FRESNO, CA 93794
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson