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To: dangus; Harrymehome; woollyone
And why would Mark 16:1 say, “When the Sabbath was over?”

This is very confusing to some until you understand that Chapter and Verses were not included in the original writing. If you read [Mark 15:42 through Mark 16:1] you'll realize that the Sabbath being referred to is indeed the same Sabbath that [John 19:31] mentions. The High Sabbath of the Feast of Unleavened Bread! During crucifixion week this occurred from Wednesday evening through Thursday daytime....or the 15th of Nisan....Hebrew time [Leviticus 23:6].

When you divide Mark 15 and 16 the way modern translations do.....it tries to show more justification for a Sunday resurrection instead of a Sabbath (Saturday) resurrection. Try reading this passage and see how much sense it makes without the human division: [Mark 15:42-16:1] And now when the even was come, because it was the preparation, that is, the day before the sabbath, 43 Joseph of Arimathaea, an honourable counsellor, which also waited for the kingdom of God, came, and went in boldly unto Pilate, and craved the body of Jesus. 44 And Pilate marvelled if he were already dead: and calling unto him the centurion, he asked him whether he had been any while dead. 45 And when he knew it of the centurion, he gave the body to Joseph. 46 And he bought fine linen, and took him down, and wrapped him in the linen, and laid him in a sepulchre which was hewn out of a rock, and rolled a stone unto the door of the sepulchre. 47 And Mary Magdalene and Mary the mother of Joses beheld where he was laid. 1 And when the sabbath was past, Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James, and Salome, had bought sweet spices, that they might come and anoint him.

Mark wrote this book as Peter spoke the words and his writings have been said to be faithful.....just not always in the proper sequence. See This

It says: For information on these points, we can merely refer our readers to the books themselves; but now, to the extracts already made, we shall add, as being a matter of primary importance, a tradition regarding Mark who wrote the Gospel, which he [Papias] has given in the following words]: And the presbyter said this. Mark having become the interpreter of Peter, wrote down accurately whatsoever he remembered. It was not, however, in exact order that he related the sayings or deeds of Christ. For he neither heard the Lord nor accompanied Him. But afterwards, as I said, he accompanied Peter, who accommodated his instructions to the necessities [of his hearers], but with no intention of giving a regular narrative of the Lord's sayings. Wherefore Mark made no mistake in thus writing some things as he remembered them. For of one thing he took especial care, not to omit anything he had heard, and not to put anything fictitious into the statements. Section XI

It was human hands that separated [Mark 15 and 16].... and they did it in a vain attempt to establish more "Proof" for their Friday/Sunday-Crucifixion/Resurrection myth!

77 posted on 06/13/2008 4:40:36 PM PDT by Diego1618
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To: Diego1618

I’m sorry....that should be “Papias” section VI....not XI.


78 posted on 06/13/2008 5:03:20 PM PDT by Diego1618
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To: dangus; vpintheak; jkl1122; woollyone; Salvation; Diego1618
You say:
This is very confusing to some....

What can I say? There are many things that have been changed by the translators, false prophets, etc, that yes I'll agree the Bible can be very confusing. The approach one should take, which has worked for me, is to study a topic or word in every verse where that word is used. Only that way can one know what the Bible teaches. If one just picks one verse, and tries to build a conclusion without researching other verses on that same topic, it is very likely the conclusion will be wrong. You mention the separation of chapters,-- look at the sequence of the books of the OT. They're all (many) out of sequence. So if one tries to figure out a chronology using the order of the books, it becomes impossible, unless one does a lots of research.

Blessings in your search for TRUTH
79 posted on 06/13/2008 7:03:11 PM PDT by Harrymehome
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To: Diego1618

>> This is very confusing to some until you understand that Chapter and Verses were not included in the original writing. If you read [Mark 15:42 through Mark 16:1] you’ll realize that the Sabbath being referred to is indeed the same Sabbath that [John 19:31] mentions. The High Sabbath of the Feast of Unleavened Bread! <<

Would you please cite evidence that the start of the Feast of Unleavened Bread is a Sabbath? You seem to be arguing ex nihilo! One last time: It is the SEVENTH day of the Feast of unleavened bread which is a Sabbath, NOT as you claim the first.

The “High Sabbath” is a Sabbath (Saturday) that coincided with a solemn holy day (Passover).


80 posted on 06/13/2008 7:24:57 PM PDT by dangus
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