To me this is an incredible statement completely denying the concept of original sin as developed by the early western fathers. If God could have intervened with one, why does He not do it for all? Why would He have appointed original sin to men, only to selectively remove it from one person throughout history?
There is nothing in the early church fathers writings about God selectively removing sin from Mary. In a quick search, this belief didn't pop up until the eighth century in trying to rise Mary holiness. In fact, it isn't surprising that the basis for this comes from the eastern fathers, not the western fathers. It underminds the true concept of original sin.
God does justify all the elect, not just Mary.
You were arguing earlier that Abraham justified himself three times. Now you are saying God does the justifying. Which is it?
The early fathers — maybe with an exception or two — held to the concept of Mary being free from actual sin. The idea of immaculate conception had to wait for two developments: the refinement of the idea of Original Sin by St. Augistine, to which the Orthodox East is still somewhat cool, and the understanding of life beginning at conception and not at some undeterminate time during pregnancy. So yes, this teaching will not be found with precise clarity in the patristic literature.
Abraham did not justify himself. Did I really say that? God justifies based on man’s works.
This makes the Immaculate Conception a bigger miracle than the virgin birth of Christ.