I am unclear as to what exactly you ar asking me? If you are referring to post 1097, and I want to be clear to anyone who comes along and starts reading from this point on, that I did not make that post, then I will try to honestly answer your questoin.
Post 1097, posted by Oldreggie, is quoting from CCC 460, and the related quotes from the Apostolic Fathers, and I will state that it is not heresy. The Catholic Church has never via an Council or Papal Statement taught that humans become God. The first paragaraph of CCC 460 starts out by referring to “partakeing the Divine Nature”, which is to be understood to become Like God. The quote from St. Athanasius I would agree, can be confusing, if lifted out of context of the entire CCC 460, which is a paragraph in the Section of the Catechism that is reflecting deeply on the meaning of the “Incarnation”.
I will acknowlede up front that I am “no Greek-Language Scholar” and I would think that St. Athanasius’s statement that was quoted was originally written in Greek. The Greek and Eastern Orthodox term “Theosis” meaning to “be like God” or “participation in the Divine Nature”, etc, is most likely the way the phrase was written in Greek by St. Athanasius, or something close to it since “Theo” is Greek for God.
The Catechism of the Catholic Church was originally written in Latin, so what you have is a Latin translation from the original Greek, then translated into English. And again, the english rendering, taken out of context, can be confusing. However, please remember, here is where the authority of the Bishop of Rome and the Magesterium comes in to expound on what the underlying meaning of the doctrine is, given the fact that the english Translation is 2 translations removed from the original Greek.
In closing, assuming you were asking me whether Post 1097 was heresy or confusing, my answer would be Definitely Not Heresy, in fact, entirely orthodox doctrine, when properly understood. Confusing?, perhaps, if one takes the quote out of context and is not versed in the Tradition of the Early Church as expressed by the Church Fathers.
This is an honest attempt answer at your question.
Regards
"...However, please remember, here is where the authority of the Bishop of Rome and the Magesterium comes in to expound on what the underlying meaning of the doctrine is, given the fact that the english Translation is 2 translations removed from the original Greek."
What has the Pope and/or the "Magisterium" had to say regarding CCC 460?