To: Philo-Junius; Dr. Eckleburg
In John 10, Jesus is speaking of Himself. In Psalm 82 God is speaking of appointed Hebrew judges, big differences.
1,057 posted on
05/19/2008 8:29:59 PM PDT by
1000 silverlings
(Everything that deceives also enchants: Plato)
To: 1000 silverlings
Then why the plural, if the quote of Psalm 82 in John 10 refers only to Him?
And why would any Pharisee have found that argument persuasive?
1,058 posted on
05/19/2008 8:36:56 PM PDT by
Philo-Junius
(One precedent creates another. They soon accumulate and constitute law.)
To: 1000 silverlings
Why did St. John use “theoi,” then? Is it possible that your own personal interpretation might be less well linked to the original source and texts than his?
1,059 posted on
05/19/2008 8:38:59 PM PDT by
Philo-Junius
(One precedent creates another. They soon accumulate and constitute law.)
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