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To: Chaguito; SoothingDave
So, Paul is claiming before his death that there is already a body of scripture that is sufficient to make a man complete, finished, accomplished, what God made him to be.

Saint Paul was martyred sometime in the mid-60s, it is generally agreed that the Gospel of Mark was probably written AFTER this. It is beyond dispute that ALL of the writings of Saint John were written long AFTER this.

You prove yet again how insightful Saint Peter was with his warning in 2 Peter 3:16.

649 posted on 05/05/2008 1:18:25 PM PDT by wagglebee ("A political party cannot be all things to all people." -- Ronald Reagan, 3/1/75)
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To: wagglebee
Your reply is a non sequitur. You don't address the content of the verse.

First, I don't necessarily agree with your date for Mark. "Generally agreed" is a fallacious term used to end argument.

But the point remains that Paul saw the existing scripture as sufficient to make the man of God complete, perfect, apt to every good work, what God intended him to be. Peter specifically refers to Paul's writing, and others, as that scripture. That more apostolic writings came after Paul's statement in 2 Timothy does not change the conclusion. There was a sufficient gospel before his death, and he assumed his readers knew what he was talking about.

What do you think he is saying? Are you allowed to suggest an alternate interpretation, or does that violate 2 Peter 3:16?

653 posted on 05/05/2008 2:17:54 PM PDT by Chaguito
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