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To: suzyjaruki; Mad Dawg

Romans 3 also says about these “all”: “none that understandeth, there is none that seeketh after God ... with their tongues they have dealt deceitfully . The venom of asps is under their lips. Whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness: Their feet swift to shed blood: Destruction and misery in their ways: And the way of peace they have not known”.

Does this describe Jesus, you think?


959 posted on 04/08/2008 10:09:26 AM PDT by annalex (http://www.catecheticsonline.com/CatenaAurea.php)
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To: annalex; Mad Dawg; blue-duncan
Annalex, was Jesus "man" only, that he should be classed with all (Jews and Gentiles, Romans 3:9)? OR, was Jesus unique, one of a kind, the only God-man?

For what purpose do you think that Jesus was made to be sinless?

Mad Dawg, I have no other pronunciation of blessed & blessedness than Webster's Dictionary. ???

960 posted on 04/08/2008 11:01:26 AM PDT by suzyjaruki (Why?)
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