Why is it that our Protestant brothers want to claim sola scriptura, until they see passages that they do not agree with.
Could it be stated more clearly than this by Christ?...
...John 6:53-58, 66-67 (Read the Word of Jesus Christ)
“So Jesus said to them, ‘Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of man and drink his blood, you have no life in you; he who eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up at the last day. For my flesh is food indeed, and my blood is drink indeed. He who eats my flesh and drinks my blood abides in me and I in him”
“John 6:53-58, 66-67 (Read the Word of Jesus Christ)
“So Jesus said to them, ‘Truly, truly, I say to you, unless you eat the flesh of the Son of man and drink his blood, you have no life in you; he who eats my flesh and drinks my blood has eternal life, and I will raise him up at the last day. For my flesh is food indeed, and my blood is drink indeed. He who eats my flesh and drinks my blood abides in me and I in him”
“Could it be stated more clearly than this by Christ?...”
Great, now how soon after making this statement did Jesus make it so the audience could literally, “eat his flesh...and drink his blood”? This discourse took place a good year before the last supper so when was this flesh eating and blood drinking to take place since it was of eternal importance?
At the last supper, Jesus ate the bread and drank the wine after blessing them, did he eat his own flesh or drink his own blood? Just when did this common meal take on the mystical element since Jesus seems to say in John 6 that the participation in the meal was supposed to be taking place at that time?