What is "never with a 'religious' intent supposed to mean? Since I'm one of the illiterate laity, why don't you explicate to me the Greek in Mark 16:9, one of your own examples, which is translated, "...on the first day of the week", more specifically, why you think the grammar does not indicate the day of the week that Jesus arose early, and why you think it should be translated, "On one of the Sabbaths", as opposed to "early on the first day of the week". 
Cordially,
[Matthew 28:1] οψε δε σαββατων τη επιφωσκουση εις μιαν σαββατων ηλθεν μαρια η μαγδαληνη και η αλλη μαρια θεωρησαι τον ταφον
From Young's literal translation of the above: And on the eve of the sabbaths, at the dawn, toward the first of the sabbaths, came Mary the Magdalene, and the other Mary, to see the sepulchre
[Mark 16:2] και λιαν πρωι της μιας σαββατων ερχονται επι το μνημειον ανατειλαντος του ηλιου
From Young's also:and early in the morning of the first of the sabbaths, they come unto the sepulchre, at the rising of the sun
This is the only verse in scripture that deals with coming to the tomb at early sunrise. The women in this verse, described by Mark who was only writing what Peter had told him (he was not an eye witness), were not the same women spoken of in [Matthew 28:1][Luke 24:1] and [John 20:1]. These women, in reaction to an empty tomb do this: (verse 8) And, having come forth quickly, they fled from the sepulchre, and trembling and amazement had seized them, and to no one said they anything, for they were afraid.
The women of Matthew do this: (verse 8) And having gone forth quickly from the tomb, with fear and great joy, they ran to tell to his disciples
The women of Luke do this: (verse 9) and having turned back from the tomb told all these things to the eleven, and to all the rest.
The women of John do this: (Verse 2) she runneth, therefore, and cometh unto Simon Peter, and unto the other disciple whom Jesus was loving, and saith to them, 'They took away the Lord out of the tomb, and we have not known where they laid him.
So....as you can see by scriptures (Young's Literal Translation) the only incident at sunrise involves other women than those who came to the tomb (Mary Magdalene, Mary....Our Saviour's Mother and Salome) on the Sabbath.... finding it empty. The reason for this confusion is simple. Chapters and verses were unheard of until the middle ages when a well meaning Cardinal (Hugo de Sancto Caro) decided to do it. Of course his divisions were meant to show the bias of the Roman Church and their Sunday morning resurrection tale and this is why you see Mark divided here.
Let's look at [Mark 15:42-47] and then we'll add [Mark 16:1] to it for clarity. KJV 42 And now when the even was come, because it was the preparation, that is, the day before the sabbath, 43 Joseph of Arimathaea, an honourable counsellor, which also waited for the kingdom of God, came, and went in boldly unto Pilate, and craved the body of Jesus. 44 And Pilate marvelled if he were already dead: and calling unto him the centurion, he asked him whether he had been any while dead. 45 And when he knew it of the centurion, he gave the body to Joseph. 46 And he bought fine linen, and took him down, and wrapped him in the linen, and laid him in a sepulchre which was hewn out of a rock, and rolled a stone unto the door of the sepulchre. 47 And Mary Magdalene and Mary the mother of Joses beheld where he was laid. 1 And when the sabbath was past, Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James, and Salome, had bought sweet spices, that they might come and anoint him.
Do you see how the passage flows? The Sabbath being spoken of in [Mark 16:1] is not the weekly Sabbath. It is the High Sabbath of Unleavened Bread pointed out in verse 42 of [Mark 15]. The Church wants everyone to believe that this is speaking of Sunday morning so they can continue their fraud. This High Sabbath is also pointed out in [John 19:31] and it occurred on a Thursday the year Our Lord was crucified....Nisan 15, the day after Passover. Passover is always on the 14th [Leviticus 23:5].
[Mark 16:9] αναστας δε πρωι πρωτη σαββατου εφανη πρωτον μαρια τη μαγδαληνη αφ ης εκβεβληκει επτα δαιμονια
From Young's: And he, having risen in the morning of the first of the sabbaths, did appear first to Mary the Magdalene, out of whom he had cast seven demons;
[Luke 24:1] τη δε μια των σαββατων ορθρου βαθεος ηλθον επι το μνημα φερουσαι α ητοιμασαν αρωματα και τινες συν αυταις
From Young's: And on the first of the sabbaths, at early dawn, they came to the tomb, bearing the spices they made ready, and certain others with them
[John 20:1] τη δε μια των σαββατων μαρια η μαγδαληνη ερχεται πρωι σκοτιας ετι ουσης εις το μνημειον και βλεπει τον λιθον ηρμενον εκ του μνημειου
Young's: And on the first of the sabbaths, Mary the Magdalene doth come early (there being yet darkness) to the tomb, and she seeth the stone having been taken away out of the tomb.
Young's literal translation is about the best for this study although even they cannot seem to get away from their preconceived idea of a Sunday morning resurrection. I have not included the rest of the Sunday proof verses....but they're all the same. They say "On one of the Sabbaths" and as you can see, Young's gets that wrong by saying "The first of the Sabbaths".
In the Greek there is no word for Sabbath and this word, SABBATWN, is a translation from the Hebrew Shabbaton....meaning a "special Sabbath"....not your ordinary weekly Sabbath. In all cases dealing with the resurrection this word "SABBATWN" is used. What are the special Sabbaths being translated here? In addition to the Sabbaths outlined in [Leviticus 23] there were 7 other "special Sabbaths" that any first century Jew would be aware of.....and they were the seven Sabbaths between Passover and Pentecost.....the count of the "Omer".
If you were to say in the Greek "First of the Sabbaths" you would not write MIA. MIA means one. If you wrote MIA HEMERA....it could mean first day (as in a sequence) but HEMERA is never used. The word "day" in all translations has been added by the translators and is even sometimes italicized to show that. It is not in any original manuscript. The translators, especially the KJV, had an agenda to try and show a Sunday morning resurrection. If you were to say "First day" you would include the word "PROTOS HEMERA". MIA when it connects to SABBATWN cannot mean anything other that the event happening on a Sabbath day.....which was a "Special" Sabbath Day....thereby identifying it further.
What I meant by "Never with a religious intent" was....there was no special religious observance happening in the verses that the Church uses to claim a Sunday Morning resurrection. As you can see the phrase "First day of the week" is a mis translation. Our Lord resurrected on the Sabbath.