Replies

Your original post certainly drew some, to be gentle, less than studied comments. From what the apostle writes in both chapter three and four of Hebrews he seems to be saying that the 7th. day of Genesis 22:2&3 was still running when the Israelites were made to wander the wilderness and was still running in PaulÂ’s day. Then a statement of his point in Hebrews 2:10 that we enter into that Sabbath resting by desisting from our own works and dong GodÂ’s will. Hence it seems the apostle is saying that that last Â“dayÂ” of Genesis hasnÂ’t ended yet. Perhaps explaining why Jesus was Â“Lord of the SabbathÂ”. IÂ’d enjoy hearing your thoughts on the matter.

Sorry, I did miss this one. I've been active in two threads AND trying to take care of work and church obligations.

The way I read it is this:

In Hebrews chapter 3, Paul is talking about the Israelites wandering in the wilderness. He quotes Psalm 95 verses 7-11 and uses it to establish this:

David, when writing that Psalm, said "Today, if you will hear his voice". Paul took that to mean that today (in Paul's day) we hear God's voice through the gospel. He compares the non-belief of people who hear the gospel with the non-belief of the Israelites who wandered for 40 years and couldn't "rest". He encourages us to keep believing, not to stop believing like the Israelites did.

In Hebrews 4, he continues the same line of thought. He starts with saying that since we still haven't entered that rest (there's still the promise of entering the rest), but that we need to believe and if we believe we'll enter that rest.

Now it gets interesting. In 4:4 he does reference the Genesis 2:2 which of course is a reference to when God rested on the 7th day of creation. In the very next verse, he references Psalm 95:11 again, about "they shall not enter into my rest".

In verses 6 and 7 he sums up again and draws the parallel again that Christians won't enter into God's rest if they fall away in unbelief just the same as the Israelites fell away.

In verse 9 is the MAIN point he was trying to make. The main idea, the thing question he was addressing. And I believe that what he was addressing was whether or not the sabbath was valid still. And the answer is "Yes". Since Christians don't have the "rest", which the sabbath pictures, then there still remains a sabbath keeping for the people of God.

The King James renders 4:9 as:

Heb 4:9 There remaineth therefore a rest to the people of God.

The word translated "rest" is the word "Sabbatismos". From Barnes commentary:

The word Â“restÂ” in this verse - σαββατισμὸς sabbatismos - Â“Sabbatism,Â” in the margin is rendered Â“keeping of a Sabbath.Â” It is a different word from σάββατον sabbaton - Â“the Sabbath;Â” and it occurs nowhere else in the New Testament, and is not found in the Septuagint. It properly means Â“a keeping SabbathÂ” from σαββατίζω sabbatizō - Â“to keep Sabbath.Â” This word, not used in the New Testament, occurs frequently in the Septuagint; Exo_16:30; Lev_23:32; Lev_26:35; 2Ch_36:21; and in 3 Esdr. 1:58; 2 Macc. 6:6.

Exodus 16:30 is:

Exo 16:30 So the people rested on the seventh day.

Hebrews 4:10-11

Heb 4:10 For he that is entered into his rest, he also hath ceased from his own works, as God did from his.
Heb 4:11 Let us labor therefore to enter into that rest, lest any man fall after the same example of unbelief.

So I believe that the point is that the sabbath day is a shadow, a picture, a forerunner of eternity. And that therer still is a sabbath keeping for the people of God.

So in a sense, the last day hasn't ended yet, which is why the sabbath is still valid.

However, I think the reference to "Lord of the Sabbath" in the context that it was used means simply that since he was the creator of the sabbath that he can determine what is a violation of the sabbath and not the Pharisees.

I hope this isn't too convoluted. I thank you for the question and it was an edifying study.