Don’t argue with me, take it up with the Fathers of the Church: they uniformly read the Scriptures as taking Paradise to be the same as the Paradise in Eden, understanding it as having been removed from the world after the expulsion of our first parents.
Anglicans often fall into modernist heresies, and there are hints of some in the bishop’s statement if one reads closely, but the main thrust of his remarks, including that alluded to in the headline, which seems to exercise protestants so much, are a return to the way the ancient Church understood the Scriptures.
“take it up with the Fathers of the Church: they uniformly read the Scriptures as taking Paradise to be the same as the Paradise in Eden”
Given that they thought this, do you think the Fathers of the Church may have been wrong? Why would Jesus go to the Garden of Eden after his death? To hang out with the thief? What purpose would that serve? Were the Old Testament Saints in the Garden of Eden waiting entrance to heaven after the resurrection?
Paradise was separated from hell by a large chasm. How could this be the Garden of Eden?
I’m not arguing, just trying to apply a little logic.