Read the passage from Luke that I posted in #10. What is the “Paradise” that the robber would be with the Lord if not Heaven?
“What is the “Paradise” that the robber would be with the Lord if not Heaven?”
Probably the “Bossom of Abraham”, the place of the dead, the bonds of which Christ shattered when “Hell took a body, and discovered God.
It took earth, and encountered Heaven.
It took what it saw, and was overcome by what it did not see.”
Here’s the answer to your question. All saints prior to Jesus’s resurrection were placed in “Paradise”. Nobody was permitted in heaven before Jesus. That’s why He said “Paradise” instead of “Heaven”. Paradise was separated from hell by a large chasm.
Here is the literal translation from the Greek: and Jesus said to him, "Verily I say to thee, Today with me thou shalt be in the paradise."
But.....since we all know there is no punctuation in the Greek....I can just as easily say this: and Jesus said to him, "Verily I say to thee Today, with me thou shalt be in the paradise".
The good Bishop is correct....otherwise....what would be the purpose for the resurrection? There are no scriptures that say "anyone is going to heaven"....."has been to heaven"....."I'll see you in heaven"...."we'll have a great time in heaven"....or anything of that nature. But....the scriptures do say this: [John 3:13] And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.
Those of you that are going to try and throw [II Kings 2:11] at me please read [John 3:13] again. It says....and Our Saviour is the one doing the talking.....NO MAN!