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To: Manfred the Wonder Dawg
I offer for your consideration, Proverbs 16:4 “The LORD hath made all things for himself: yea, even the wicked for the day of evil."

Is that what Jesus taught? Where is Christ in Prov 16? Therein lies the problem.

Besides, the NAB says "The LORD has made everything for its own purpose, even the wicked for the day of evil.

Quite a difference from "for himself."

It's interesting that KJV translates the Hebrew word "ma'aneh" as answer no less than seven times, but in this particular case it translates it (one and only time) as "for himself!" How curious! Smacks of an agenda to me.

The Septuagint (LXX) actually omits this verse along with verses 1, 3, and 6 of the Masoretic Text)!

So, how do you expect an Orthodox Christian to consider Prov 16 with that verse in it?

5,753 posted on 05/23/2008 9:41:02 PM PDT by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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To: kosta50

“Is that what Jesus taught? Where is Christ in Prov 16? Therein lies the problem.”

If you wish to separate Christ from what we call the “Old Testament”, you and I cannot have a conversation.

You’ve got to be kidding. Christ not in the Word? Not teaching the Word? How ‘bout what the Lord Jesus said as recorded in John 6:70-71? “Jesus answered them, Have not I chosen you twelve, and one of you is a devil? He spake of Judas Iscariot the son of Simon: for he it was that should betray him, being one of the twelve.”

Sounds a whole lot like the message in Prov 16:4


5,775 posted on 05/24/2008 7:48:20 AM PDT by Manfred the Wonder Dawg (Test ALL things, hold to that which is True.)
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