We didn't have an Orthodox "Trent" and, like the Jews, the Eastern Church never formally canonized the scripture. The scriptures are what the Church, in time, come to regard as canon.
As it turns out, the non-binding local (Third, African) Council of Carthage at the end of the 4th century canonized the books of the Bible which included all the "Apocryphal" books, as well as the books we currently use, including the Book of Revelation and the entire Church accepted this on their own.
The Eastern Church, however, did not accept Revelation until the 9th century. This posed absolutely no problem with the West. No Ecumenical (General, binding) Councils of the Undivided Church (first 11 centuries) ever proclaimed the canon. The first "ecumenical" council that did was the Council of Trent, and it is binding only to the Western Church (for starters, we never used Vulgate).
Thanks. As you might imagine, not every Latin would agree with this. :) But nevertheless, I wanted to get a stronger handle on what the respective positions were. This helps, so thanks again.