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“Yet, we are plainly told in the OT that some WERE righteous. Therefore, those who were righteous could not have believed as you say Judaism taught.”

Why do you say this? The fact that we disagree on the what precisely The Church is, are you saying that no one who does not know Christ can be Righteous? Does that mean that the OT Righteous "knew" Christ? That seems rather presumptuous frankly. Perhaps I am misunderstanding you?

FK: “Yet, we are plainly told in the OT that some WERE righteous. Therefore, those who were righteous could not have believed as you say Judaism taught.”

That's exactly what I'm saying. :) Now, "knowing Christ" does not necessarily mean being able to recite C-H-R-I-S-T, and knowing everything that we know about Him. But, "knowing Christ" is necessary for righteousness and salvation:

Rom 10:9-13 : 9 That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved. 10 For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation. 11 For the scripture saith, Whosoever believeth on him shall not be ashamed. [Isa. 28:16] 12 For there is no difference between the Jew and the Greek: for the same Lord over all is rich unto all that call upon him. 13 For whosoever shall call upon the name of the Lord shall be saved. KJV

This passage does not represent some kind of changing of the rules. It applies to those in the OT as well. Some people believe that the first appearance of Christ in the Bible is in the NT. Nothing could be further from the truth. He appeared and His existence was known all over the OT.