What verses?
Kosta: You do realize, I hope, that chapters 1 through 7 of Daniel were written in Chaldean (Aramaic) and not in Hebrew.” BD: I am aware of this theory but, as you expect, don’t buy into it.
LOL! The Jewish Encyclopedia writes:
It also mentions that there are scholars of every kind with all sorts of theories...but that's what we have and that's what we have to work with. Speculation is acedemic lexury.
Kosta: Curiously, Protestants pick and choose from these variants,
BD: Don’t we all!!
The Protestants are supposed to accept only the Hebrew Bible. But, then, they wouldn't be Protestants if they didn't protest their own rules.
It seems, however, that all the mumbo-jumbop variants of the supposedly pristine "word of God" seem to have no effect on your desire to comment, no matter how divergent they may be theologically.
We’ve been doing a Beth Moore study of Daniel and she claims the same thing, that part of it’s written in Hebrew and the other isn’t.
“But the writer of Daniel uses both ben and bar and adam and enash in the first 7 chapters”
“What verses?”
bar: Dan. 3:25, 5:22, 7:13; Ezra 5:1,2; Prov. 31:2
ben: Dan. 5:21, 8:17, 9:1 (Ezekiel, Ezra, Nehemiah use ben exclusively and they were in Chaldea along with Daniel)
enash is the equivalent of Hebrew enowsh not adam. The writer of Daniel uses enash in 2;10, 3;10, 6;7;12, 7;4,8,13, 10;18. He uses both adam, geber and iysh the other times man is mentioned. In chapter 2 he uses iysh. In chapters 3 and 6 he uses geber.
“It seems, however, that all the mumbo-jumbop variants of the supposedly pristine “word of God” seem to have no effect on your desire to comment”
I did mention that I’m a Baptist didn’t I? The desire is part of the baptismal vows. As a scholar you should know that.