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To: kosta50; Marysecretary; wmfights; Dr. Eckleburg

“The word Son of Man (ben adam) means simply the son of Adam, a descendent of Adam, a human being, of Adam’s seed”

That is the way it is used in Job, Psalms and Isaiah, but it is used as parallelism with “son” and “son of man”. In Ezekiel “son of man” is used as a descriptive name for Ezekiel and Daniel (Daniel 8) but in Daniel 7:13 it is used as a title for a divine person “The Son of man”. This is the title that Jesus uses for himself throughout the Gospels, only using the title “Son of God” a very few times, perhaps three or four. The Jews knew when he was referring to “The Son of Man” he was referencing Daniel 7 and the Jewish leaders knew he was referring to himself as God, that is the reason for the accusation of blasphemy and ultimately the crucifixion along with the threat to their “phoney-baloney” jobs.

When he used the phrase “finger of God” they knew he was claiming “Godlike” attributes just as Pharoah saw in the plagues in Egypt. When the Jewish leaders asked him if he was “The Son of God” he affirmed it by saying “you say that I am” and they understood that to mean he was affirming the title to himself, just as he did when Pilate asked him if he was “King of the Jews”, an eschatological title of looked for kingdom.

The Jews and the disciples all were looking for a restoration of the earthly Jewish kingdom until Pentecost,Peter’s sermon, but Jesus during his ministry was filling out the Old Testament prophecies and expectations with the reality of who he was in fulfillment of the prophecies and the “near and far” proximity of the kingdom.


1,579 posted on 02/07/2008 7:58:02 PM PST by blue-duncan
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To: blue-duncan; Marysecretary; wmfights; Dr. Eckleburg
Daniel 7:13 it is used as a title for a divine person “The Son of man”.

How do you know that? Hebrew did not distinguish between lower case and upper case letters. In fact the NIV doesn't capitalize "son of man"

and neither does the Jewish Tanakh

but it does capitalize "Him" meaning God as is obvious from the next verse in which He (God) gives him (son of man) dominion of eternal kingdom (the world to come under human messiah, as Judaism believes).

The OT speaks of nations knowing the justice (punishment, fear in OT terms) of the God of Abraham threough this son of man, and Daniel 14 speaks of the him (lower case h) receiving

It is eternal but not heavenly. Son of man never meant God in Judaism And Son of God never meant God in Judaism either.

he affirmed it by saying “you say that I am” and they understood that to mean he was affirming the title to himself

That's what the Gospels say but in reality that's no affirmation.

just as he did when Pilate asked him if he was “King of the Jews”, an eschatological title of looked for kingdom

Escathological in terms of delivering Israel from the hands of the Romans to the hands of the the Jewish King-Savior, not to a divine Person.

The messianic King of the Jews is a man, not God. His mission is to restore the Kingdom of Israel and establish world dominion. Notice, in Daniel it doesn't say the whole world will "worship" him (as a God) but serve him (as their Lord).

1,585 posted on 02/07/2008 9:38:06 PM PST by kosta50 (Eastern Orthodoxy is pure Christianity)
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