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To: Uncle Chip; kosta50

Your post is truly one of the most bizarre I have read on FR. Do you know anything at all about Orthodoxy?

“And now today the Greek Orthodox Church has abandoned that very Greek Text that they gave to the West and that was read in all their Greek lectionaries in all their Greek churches for all those centuries.”

and

“What happened to that Traditional Greek Text?”

OC, we use the exact same scriptures Liturgically that we have used since at the latest the late 4th century, the Byzantine Text. We don’t use the Alexandrian texts and we certainly don’t use the Latin texts. What do you mean?

As for giving you Westerners the scriptures, we did. The canon you read as scripture, the “bible” you Westerners love to thump, was established by a bunch of Greek speaking bishops in a “I’ll trade you a Letter to the Hebrews for a Revelation of John” type process. You read the canon you do, with some small changes to avoid problems raised by the proetstant revolution, because we Greeks said that canon was in accord with what The Church taught...not the other way around, OC.

You ask why we didn’t translate the NT into other languages. We did, as I assume you well know. Funny how the translations of the NT into Arabic, Coptic, Amharic, Aramaic, Syriac, Church Slavonic, Armenian, Georgian, Ge’ez, and a number of other Semitic and Turkic languages, oh, and I forgot, Japanese,Mandarin and Cantonese, are all absolutely faithful to the Greek, even if the understanding of some of the words was divergent. But when we head west of the Adriatic, we find perversion after perversion of the text. You know why, UC? Its because the East had no particular agenda whereas from the the West did, especially by the 16th century.

I am absolutely convinced that God ordained salvation for the Greeks, and all the rest of the world too...and He chose Greek for His new scriptures, not English, or German or Latin.


1,496 posted on 02/07/2008 7:37:18 AM PST by Kolokotronis (Christ is Risen, and you, o death, are annihilated!)
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To: Kolokotronis; kosta50
OC, we use the exact same scriptures Liturgically that we have used since at the latest the late 4th century, the Byzantine Text. We don’t use the Alexandrian texts and we certainly don’t use the Latin texts. What do you mean?."

I am told that the Greek Orthodox Church uses Codex Alexandrinus. Well Codex Alexandrinus is Byzantine in the Gospels only, but Alexandrian [Sinaiticus/Vaticanus B] in the Epistles and elsewhere. So somebody is fooling somebody. Here is what Kosta posted:

"The Greek Orthodox Church uses Codex Alexandrinus, which is the same text trecived by Erasmus and which is a lot more corrupt than the older 4th century Codices Vaticanus and Sinaitcus, the least "polished" and altered and the oldest, of all other manuscripts. In fact the Received Text are copies of the 12th century copies of the highly "harmonzied" and choregraphed end of 5th century C. Alexandrinus, which has been throughly "Christianized".

When did the change take place??? Are those lectionaries of the Epistles other than the Gospels that you are reading from in the church Byzantine or Alexandrian???

1,508 posted on 02/07/2008 8:41:51 AM PST by Uncle Chip (TRUTH : Ignore it. Deride it. Allegorize it. Interpret it. But you can't ESCAPE it.)
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To: Kolokotronis

***I am absolutely convinced that God ordained salvation for the Greeks, and all the rest of the world too...and He chose Greek for His new scriptures, not English, or German or Latin.***

How about Pig-Latin? :>)


1,567 posted on 02/07/2008 4:24:13 PM PST by irishtenor (Check out my blog at http://boompa53.blogspot.com/)
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