[Frumanchu]

Megalomania.

What's fun about giving some people the opportunity to show their ignorance is that they are often so quick to rise to the challenge.

Let me ask again, this time in the hopes that you'll actually present something that shows you have a clue what you're talking about.

Do you even know why Luther questioned the inclusion of a few books in the first place?

[Petronski]

I know what his excuse was, if that’s what you meant.

[Rutles4Ever]

Luther questioned their inclusion because the jist of his rebellion involved purgatorial indulgences. To support his cause, he had to prove that the theology surrounding purgatory was erroneous. The quickest way was to remove any hint of it from the Bible - and that meant getting rid of 2 Maccabees.

So how does a German monk actually, unilaterally remove a book from a millienia-long accepted canon? Well, as they say, there's "safety in numbers". Since 2 Maccabees was part of the Septuagint, along with 1 Maccabees, Tobit, Judith, Wisdom, Sirach, and Baruch, it was less problematic to take a common denominator - their primary Greek translation - and flush the bunch for the sake of getting rid of 2 Maccabees and, effectively, Purgatory.

What's truly ironic, is that Luther, himself, included the Apocryphal books in his German translations of the Bible. So, until his dust-up with the Magisterium, these books were perfectly acceptable to him. Suddenly, in a fit of "principle", they were bogus members of the canon.

Very strange.